NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?

Causes locking of knee. ***Causes locking of knee*** - The popliteus muscle acts as the key to **unlocking the knee** from its fully extended, locked position, not causing it to lock. [1] - It achieves this by producing **internal rotation of the tibia** on the femur (or external rotation of the femur on the tibia) at the beginning of knee flexion. *Flexor of knee* - The popliteus muscle contributes to **flexion of the knee joint**, working in conjunction with the hamstrings. - This action is particularly important during the initial phases of knee flexion. *Intracapsular origin* - The popliteus muscle originates from the **lateral condyle of the femur**, specifically from an impression just anterior and inferior to the groove for the popliteal tendon. - This origin point is indeed **intracapsular**, lying within the fibrous capsule of the knee joint. *Supplied by tibial nerve* - The popliteus muscle receives its innervation from the **tibial nerve**, a branch of the sciatic nerve. - The nerve typically arises from the posterior aspect of the tibial nerve trunk as it passes through the popliteal fossa.

Q: What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Delirium. ***Delirium*** - Ketamine is known to cause **emergence phenomena**, which include **vivid dreams, hallucinations**, and **delirium**, particularly during recovery from anesthesia. - This psychotomimetic effect can be distressing for patients and may necessitate the co-administration of a **benzodiazepine** to mitigate these symptoms. *Increased heart rate* - While ketamine does cause an **increase in heart rate** and **blood pressure** due to sympathetic stimulation, this is often considered a disadvantage but not the *most significant* when compared to the unique cognitive side effects. - This effect can be beneficial in patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but can be problematic in those with **cardiovascular disease**. *Increased ICT* - It is often considered a contraindication in patients with **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)** as it can potentially increase **cerebral blood flow** and thus ICP. - However, recent studies suggest that in adequately ventilated patients, the effect on ICP may be less pronounced than previously thought, making delirium a more consistent and prominent disadvantage for many patients. *All of the options* - While ketamine can cause an **increased heart rate** and potentially affect **intracranial pressure**, **delirium** and other emergence phenomena are often highlighted as a unique and significant disadvantage because they are highly distressing and difficult to manage. - The psychotomimetic effects are a hallmark side effect that often governs its cautious use without concurrent medication.

Q: India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -

2010. ***2010*** - India implemented the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** as part of its Universal Immunization Program starting in **2010**. - This decision was based on recommendations to improve immunity and reduce measles incidence, moving from a single-dose to a more effective **two-dose schedule**. *2008* - While important immunization initiatives were ongoing, the specific policy of a **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** had not yet been introduced in India during 2008. - At this time, the focus was primarily on ensuring high coverage of the **first dose** of measles vaccine. *2009* - The year 2009 saw continued efforts to strengthen the Universal Immunization Program, but the official launch of the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** in India occurred later. - Discussions and planning for the transition were likely underway, but implementation began in the subsequent year. *2011* - By 2011, the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** was already being implemented across India, having been introduced in 2010. - This year marked a period of expanding coverage and consolidation of the new 2-dose schedule rather than its initial introduction.

Q: What is the primary causative vector of Vagabond disease?

Louse. ***Louse*** - Vagabond disease is a term historically used to describe the chronic skin changes (such as **pigmentation**, **lichenification**, and **excoriations**) resulting from persistent **pediculosis corporis** (body lice infestation). - The **body louse** (*Pediculus humanus corporis*) is the causative agent responsible for these chronic dermatological changes through prolonged infestation. - Body lice are also vectors that can transmit other diseases like **epidemic typhus**, **louse-borne relapsing fever**, and **trench fever**, but vagabond disease itself is the direct result of chronic louse infestation rather than a transmitted pathogen. *Mite* - Mites are responsible for various conditions, such as **scabies** (caused by *Sarcoptes scabiei*) and serve as vectors for **scrub typhus** (transmitted by chiggers, the larval form of trombiculid mites). - However, they are not associated with vagabond disease or the chronic dermatological changes caused by body lice. *Tick* - Ticks are known vectors for a wide range of diseases, including **Lyme disease**, **Rocky Mountain spotted fever**, **anaplasmosis**, and **babesiosis**. - These diseases are transmitted through the bite of infected ticks, which are distinct from the louse-related conditions associated with vagabond disease. *Black Fly* - Black flies (*Simulium* species) are vectors for **onchocerciasis** (river blindness), caused by the parasitic nematode *Onchocerca volvulus*. - While they can cause itchy bites and transmit significant disease, they are not involved in the chronic skin condition known as vagabond disease.

Q: What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

USG. ***Correct Answer: USG*** - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the most common and effective method for diagnosing an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It allows for visualization of a gestational sac outside the uterus or an adnexal mass. - In conjunction with **serum beta-hCG levels**, TVS helps to differentiate between an intrauterine pregnancy and an ectopic pregnancy, especially when hCG levels are above the discriminatory zone (typically 1500-2000 mIU/mL). - TVS has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting ectopic pregnancy and is **non-invasive**. *Incorrect: Endoscopy* - **Endoscopy** (such as laparoscopy) is a surgical procedure, primarily used for direct visualization and treatment of ectopic pregnancies, not for initial diagnosis. - It is *too invasive* for routine diagnostic purposes in an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. *Incorrect: UPT* - A **urine pregnancy test (UPT)** confirms pregnancy but *cannot determine the location* of the pregnancy. - A positive UPT only indicates the presence of **hCG**, which is elevated in both intrauterine and ectopic pregnancies. *Incorrect: Culdocentesis* - **Culdocentesis** involves aspirating fluid from the cul-de-sac and is used to detect the presence of *free blood* in the peritoneal cavity, indicating a **ruptured** ectopic pregnancy. - It is not useful for diagnosing an **unruptured ectopic pregnancy** and is largely replaced by ultrasound in modern practice.

Q: Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Osteoid osteoma. ***Osteoid osteoma*** - This benign bone tumor is characterized by **nocturnal pain** that is typically **relieved by NSAIDs**, a highly distinctive clinical feature due to prostaglandin production within the nidus. - Radiographically, it presents as a small **radiolucent nidus** (less than 1.5 cm) surrounded by a significant margin of **sclerotic bone**. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a **malignant cartilage-forming tumor** that usually presents with a dull, aching pain that is often **not relieved by NSAIDs** and may worsen over time. - Radiographically, it appears as a **large, destructive lesion with calcifications**, not a small nidus with surrounding sclerosis. *Enchondroma* - An enchondroma is a **benign cartilaginous tumor** that is typically found in the medullary cavity of long bones, often in the small bones of the hands and feet. - It is usually **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally, and on imaging, it appears as a **well-circumscribed lytic lesion** without the prominent sclerotic rim or specific nocturnal pain pattern seen in osteoid osteoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **osteoid osteoma** perfectly matches the clinical and radiographic description provided in the question.

Q: What type of cast is primarily associated with the development of Cast syndrome?

Hip spica cast. ***Hip spica cast*** - A **hip spica cast** encases the trunk and one or both legs, increasing intra-abdominal pressure due to its extensive coverage. - This pressure can compress the **superior mesenteric artery** against the **duodenum**, leading to Cast syndrome (also known as superior mesenteric artery syndrome). *Full arm cast* - A full arm cast does not cover the abdomen and therefore does not exert pressure on the **superior mesenteric artery** or duodenum. - It is associated with complications like compartment syndrome or nerve impingement in the upper extremity, but not Cast syndrome. *Short arm cast* - Similar to a full arm cast, a short arm cast is limited to the forearm and hand and poses no risk for **abdominal compression**. - Complications are localized to the distal upper limb, such as carpal tunnel syndrome or skin breakdown. *Above knee cast* - An above knee cast covers the lower leg and thigh but does not extend to the abdomen. - It does not contribute to the increased intra-abdominal pressure necessary for the development of **superior mesenteric artery syndrome**.

Q: Green stick fracture is

Incomplete fracture. ***Incomplete fracture*** - A **greenstick fracture** is an **incomplete fracture** where the bone bends and cracks but does not break all the way through. - This type of fracture commonly occurs in children because their bones are more flexible and softer than adult bones. *Fracture in adults* - While adults can experience various types of fractures, a **greenstick fracture** is rare in adults due to their more rigid and brittle bones. - Adult bones tend to sustain **complete fractures** or other complex fracture patterns instead of bending partially. *Complete fracture* - A **complete fracture** denotes a break in the bone that severs it into two or more distinct pieces. - **Greenstick fractures** are by definition incomplete, meaning the bone is still partially intact. *Fracture spine* - A **spinal fracture** specifically refers to a break in one or more vertebrae in the spinal column. - While spinal fractures can be complete or incomplete, the term **greenstick fracture** is not typically used to describe fractures of the spine.

Q: Which of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?

Direct Coombs Positive. ***Direct Coomb's Positive*** - In Hereditary Spherocytosis, the **Coomb's test** is typically **negative**, indicating that hemolysis is not due to autoimmune factors. - Presence of **spherocytes** on the blood smear and increased fragility are hallmark findings, not antibodies against red cells [1]. *Splenomegaly* - **Splenomegaly** is common in Hereditary Spherocytosis as the spleen actively removes abnormal spherocytes from circulation [1]. - It can lead to **hypersplenism**, with resultant anemia and thrombocytopenia. *Increased Osmotic Fragility* - Increased osmotic fragility is a key feature of Hereditary Spherocytosis, as red blood cells are less able to withstand hypotonic solutions [1]. - This results from a defect in the red cell membrane, causing spherocyte shape and fragility. *Gall stones* - Patients may develop **gallstones** due to increased bilirubin from the breakdown of spherocytes, leading to **bilirubin stones** [1]. - Gallstones are a common complication due to chronic hemolysis. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 597-598.

Q: What is the most common complication of a felon?

Osteomyelitis. ***Osteomyelitis*** - A **felon** is a severe infection of the **distal pulp space** of the fingertip, which has numerous fibrous septa. - The tightly compartmentalized nature of this space can lead to increased pressure, compromising blood supply and facilitating the spread of infection to the underlying **phalanx bone**, causing **osteomyelitis**. *Subungual hematoma* - A **subungual hematoma** is a collection of blood under the nail, usually resulting from direct trauma. - It is not a complication of an infection like a felon, but rather a separate traumatic injury. *Infective arthritis* - **Infective arthritis** involves the joint space, typically resulting from direct inoculation, hematogenous spread, or spread from adjacent soft tissue infection. - While possible, it is less common for a felon to directly spread to the **distal interphalangeal joint** compared to the more immediate risk of bone involvement. *No complications* - A **felon** is a serious infection that, if left untreated, almost always leads to complications due to the unique anatomy of the fingertip pulp space. - The high pressure within the compartments of the distal pulp makes it prone to necrosis and spread of infection to adjacent structures.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?

Accepted Answer

Causes locking of knee

Answer

Intracapsular origin

Answer

Supplied by tibial nerve

Answer

Flexor of knee

Question 2

What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Accepted Answer

Delirium

Answer

Increased heart rate

Answer

Increased ICT

Answer

All of the options

Question 3

India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -

Accepted Answer

2010

Answer

2008

Answer

2009

Answer

2011

Question 4

What is the primary causative vector of Vagabond disease?

Accepted Answer

Louse

Answer

Mite

Answer

Tick

Answer

Black Fly

Question 5

What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

USG

Answer

Endoscopy

Answer

UPT

Answer

Culdocentesis

Question 6

Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Accepted Answer

Osteoid osteoma

Answer

Chondrosarcoma

Answer

Enchondroma

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

What type of cast is primarily associated with the development of Cast syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Hip spica cast

Answer

Full arm cast

Answer

Short arm cast

Answer

Above knee cast

Question 8

Green stick fracture is

Accepted Answer

Incomplete fracture

Answer

Fracture in adults

Answer

Complete fracture

Answer

Fracture spine

Question 9

Which of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?

Accepted Answer

Direct Coombs Positive

Answer

Gall stones

Answer

Splenomegaly

Answer

Increased Osmotic Fragility

Question 10

What is the most common complication of a felon?

Accepted Answer

Osteomyelitis

Answer

Subungual hematoma

Answer

Infective arthritis

Answer

No complications

NEET-PG 2012

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Community Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Surgery