Anatomy
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?
- A. Causes locking of knee (Correct Answer)
- B. Intracapsular origin
- C. Supplied by tibial nerve
- D. Flexor of knee
Explanation: ***Causes locking of knee*** - The popliteus muscle acts as the key to **unlocking the knee** from its fully extended, locked position, not causing it to lock. [1] - It achieves this by producing **internal rotation of the tibia** on the femur (or external rotation of the femur on the tibia) at the beginning of knee flexion. *Flexor of knee* - The popliteus muscle contributes to **flexion of the knee joint**, working in conjunction with the hamstrings. - This action is particularly important during the initial phases of knee flexion. *Intracapsular origin* - The popliteus muscle originates from the **lateral condyle of the femur**, specifically from an impression just anterior and inferior to the groove for the popliteal tendon. - This origin point is indeed **intracapsular**, lying within the fibrous capsule of the knee joint. *Supplied by tibial nerve* - The popliteus muscle receives its innervation from the **tibial nerve**, a branch of the sciatic nerve. - The nerve typically arises from the posterior aspect of the tibial nerve trunk as it passes through the popliteal fossa.
Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhat is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased ICT
- C. Delirium (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Delirium*** - Ketamine is known to cause **emergence phenomena**, which include **vivid dreams, hallucinations**, and **delirium**, particularly during recovery from anesthesia. - This psychotomimetic effect can be distressing for patients and may necessitate the co-administration of a **benzodiazepine** to mitigate these symptoms. *Increased heart rate* - While ketamine does cause an **increase in heart rate** and **blood pressure** due to sympathetic stimulation, this is often considered a disadvantage but not the *most significant* when compared to the unique cognitive side effects. - This effect can be beneficial in patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but can be problematic in those with **cardiovascular disease**. *Increased ICT* - It is often considered a contraindication in patients with **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)** as it can potentially increase **cerebral blood flow** and thus ICP. - However, recent studies suggest that in adequately ventilated patients, the effect on ICP may be less pronounced than previously thought, making delirium a more consistent and prominent disadvantage for many patients. *All of the options* - While ketamine can cause an **increased heart rate** and potentially affect **intracranial pressure**, **delirium** and other emergence phenomena are often highlighted as a unique and significant disadvantage because they are highly distressing and difficult to manage. - The psychotomimetic effects are a hallmark side effect that often governs its cautious use without concurrent medication.
Biochemistry
1 questionsIn which of the following conditions is a Barr body absent in females?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: In which of the following conditions is a Barr body absent in females?
- A. 46 XX genome
- B. 45 X0 genome (Correct Answer)
- C. 47 XXX
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***45 X0 genome*** - A Barr body is a **condensed, inactivated X chromosome** found in somatic cells of females with at least two X chromosomes. - Individuals with a **45 X0 genome** (Turner Syndrome) have only one X chromosome, therefore no Barr body is formed. *46 XX genome* - Individuals with a **46 XX genome** are typical females and will have one Barr body per somatic cell, as one of the two X chromosomes is inactivated. - This is the normal female karyotype. *47 XXX* - Individuals with a **47 XXX genome** (triple X syndrome) have two Barr bodies per somatic cell, as two of their three X chromosomes are inactivated. - The number of Barr bodies is typically one less than the number of X chromosomes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the 45 X0 genome indeed leads to the absence of a Barr body in females. - There is a specific condition listed among the options where a Barr body is absent.
Community Medicine
2 questionsIndia started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -
What is the primary causative vector of Vagabond disease?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -
- A. 2008
- B. 2009
- C. 2010 (Correct Answer)
- D. 2011
Explanation: ***2010*** - India implemented the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** as part of its Universal Immunization Program starting in **2010**. - This decision was based on recommendations to improve immunity and reduce measles incidence, moving from a single-dose to a more effective **two-dose schedule**. *2008* - While important immunization initiatives were ongoing, the specific policy of a **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** had not yet been introduced in India during 2008. - At this time, the focus was primarily on ensuring high coverage of the **first dose** of measles vaccine. *2009* - The year 2009 saw continued efforts to strengthen the Universal Immunization Program, but the official launch of the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** in India occurred later. - Discussions and planning for the transition were likely underway, but implementation began in the subsequent year. *2011* - By 2011, the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** was already being implemented across India, having been introduced in 2010. - This year marked a period of expanding coverage and consolidation of the new 2-dose schedule rather than its initial introduction.
Question 1152: What is the primary causative vector of Vagabond disease?
- A. Louse (Correct Answer)
- B. Mite
- C. Tick
- D. Black Fly
Explanation: ***Louse*** - Vagabond disease is a term historically used to describe the chronic skin changes (such as **pigmentation**, **lichenification**, and **excoriations**) resulting from persistent **pediculosis corporis** (body lice infestation). - The **body louse** (*Pediculus humanus corporis*) is the causative agent responsible for these chronic dermatological changes through prolonged infestation. - Body lice are also vectors that can transmit other diseases like **epidemic typhus**, **louse-borne relapsing fever**, and **trench fever**, but vagabond disease itself is the direct result of chronic louse infestation rather than a transmitted pathogen. *Mite* - Mites are responsible for various conditions, such as **scabies** (caused by *Sarcoptes scabiei*) and serve as vectors for **scrub typhus** (transmitted by chiggers, the larval form of trombiculid mites). - However, they are not associated with vagabond disease or the chronic dermatological changes caused by body lice. *Tick* - Ticks are known vectors for a wide range of diseases, including **Lyme disease**, **Rocky Mountain spotted fever**, **anaplasmosis**, and **babesiosis**. - These diseases are transmitted through the bite of infected ticks, which are distinct from the louse-related conditions associated with vagabond disease. *Black Fly* - Black flies (*Simulium* species) are vectors for **onchocerciasis** (river blindness), caused by the parasitic nematode *Onchocerca volvulus*. - While they can cause itchy bites and transmit significant disease, they are not involved in the chronic skin condition known as vagabond disease.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about Sickle Cell Anemia is FALSE?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which of the following statements about Sickle Cell Anemia is FALSE?
- A. There is a positive correlation between HBS and polymerization of HBS (Correct Answer)
- B. Recurrent infections is the most common cause of death
- C. Patients require frequent blood transfusions
- D. Patients usually present before the age of 6 months
Explanation: ***There is a positive correlation between HBS and polymerization of HBS*** - This statement is false because the polymerization of **hemoglobin S (HbS)** is reduced as HbS levels decrease and is increased as HbS levels increase. Therefore, there is a **direct correlation**, not a positive one, where higher levels of HbS lead to more polymerization and sickling. - The disease is caused by the **polymerization of deoxyhemoglobin S**, which distorts red blood cells into a sickle shape, leading to vaso-occlusion and hemolysis [1]. *Recurrent infections is the most common cause of death* - **Recurrent infections** are indeed a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in sickle cell anemia patients, particularly in children due to **functional asplenia**. [1] - **Splenic dysfunction** impairs the ability to clear encapsulated bacteria, increasing the risk of severe infections like **pneumonia** and **meningitis**. *Patients require frequent blood transfusions* - **Frequent blood transfusions** are a common treatment strategy for sickle cell anemia to manage complications such as severe anemia, acute chest syndrome, and stroke prevention [1]. - **Chronic transfusion therapy** helps to suppress abnormal sickle cell production and dilute existing sickle cells, thereby reducing vaso-occlusive crises. *Patients usually present before the age of 6 months* - Patients with sickle cell anemia typically become symptomatic after 6 months of age, when **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** levels decline. - **HbF protects** against sickling, so symptoms like **dactylitis** and **splenic sequestration** usually manifest once HbF is replaced by HbS [1].
Microbiology
1 questionsMost common bacterial cause of acute parotitis -
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Most common bacterial cause of acute parotitis -
- A. Staphylococcus Aureus (Correct Answer)
- B. Klebsiella
- C. Streptococcus Viridans
- D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus Aureus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most frequent bacterial pathogen isolated in cases of **acute bacterial parotitis**. [2] - It often causes ascending infection from the oral cavity, leading to inflammation and suppuration of the parotid gland. [1] *Streptococcus Pneumonia* - While **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** can cause various infections, it is not the primary cause of acute bacterial parotitis. - Its infections more commonly manifest as **pneumonia**, otitis media, or meningitis. *Klebsiella* - **_Klebsiella_** species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly urinary tract infections and pneumonia. - They are a relatively uncommon cause of acute parotitis compared to _S. aureus_. *Streptococcus Viridans* - **_Streptococcus viridans_** group bacteria are common commensal organisms of the oral cavity and are often implicated in **dental caries** and **endocarditis**. - They are not a usual cause of acute bacterial parotitis.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhat is thelarche?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: What is thelarche?
- A. Breast development in boys during puberty
- B. Breast enlargement during pregnancy
- C. Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women
- D. Hormone-related breast development in girls (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hormone-related breast enlargement in girls*** - **Thelarche** specifically refers to the first sign of puberty in girls, which is the **onset of breast development**. - This development is primarily driven by the action of **estrogen** on breast tissue. *Breast development in boys during puberty* - This condition is known as **gynecomastia**, which is distinguishable from thelarche observed in girls. - While also hormone-related, **gynecomastia** often involves an imbalance between estrogen and androgens. *Breast enlargement during pregnancy* - Breast enlargement during pregnancy is a normal physiological change in preparation for lactation, driven by a surge in various hormones like **estrogen, progesterone, and prolactin**. - It is distinct from the initial, puberty-related breast development in girls. *Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women* - This is an induced effect of **exogenous hormones** (e.g., hormone replacement therapy) and not a natural developmental stage like thelarche. - It is a side effect of medication, not the start of puberty.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which of the following is a feature not typically associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis?
- A. Gall stones
- B. Direct Coombs Positive (Correct Answer)
- C. Splenomegaly
- D. Increased Osmotic Fragility
Explanation: ***Direct Coomb's Positive*** - In Hereditary Spherocytosis, the **Coomb's test** is typically **negative**, indicating that hemolysis is not due to autoimmune factors. - Presence of **spherocytes** on the blood smear and increased fragility are hallmark findings, not antibodies against red cells [1]. *Splenomegaly* - **Splenomegaly** is common in Hereditary Spherocytosis as the spleen actively removes abnormal spherocytes from circulation [1]. - It can lead to **hypersplenism**, with resultant anemia and thrombocytopenia. *Increased Osmotic Fragility* - Increased osmotic fragility is a key feature of Hereditary Spherocytosis, as red blood cells are less able to withstand hypotonic solutions [1]. - This results from a defect in the red cell membrane, causing spherocyte shape and fragility. *Gall stones* - Patients may develop **gallstones** due to increased bilirubin from the breakdown of spherocytes, leading to **bilirubin stones** [1]. - Gallstones are a common complication due to chronic hemolysis. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 597-598.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1151: Which drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?
- A. Trypsin
- B. Hydroxyurea (Correct Answer)
- C. L-glutamine
- D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Explanation: ***Hydroxyurea*** - **Hydroxyurea** is the primary drug used to treat sickle cell anemia by promoting **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** production - It is a **ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor** that increases HbF levels, which reduces sickling of red blood cells - Clinical benefits include reduced frequency of **vaso-occlusive crises**, decreased need for transfusions, and improved survival - Mechanism: Increases **HbF** production, which dilutes the abnormal **HbS** and prevents polymerization *Trypsin* - **Trypsin** is a **proteolytic enzyme** involved in protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract - It has no role in the treatment of **sickle cell anemia** or in promoting **fetal hemoglobin** production *L-glutamine* - **L-glutamine** is an **amino acid** (not a drug that promotes HbF) approved for sickle cell disease - Its mechanism involves reducing **oxidative stress** by increasing NAD+ levels and improving red blood cell energy metabolism - It reduces complications but does not primarily work by increasing **fetal hemoglobin** production *Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase* - **G6PD** is an **enzyme** in the **pentose phosphate pathway**, not a therapeutic agent - **G6PD deficiency** causes hemolytic anemia but is unrelated to sickle cell disease treatment or fetal hemoglobin production