NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What type of cell are Tzanck cells commonly associated with in skin conditions?

Keratinocyte. ***Keratinocyte*** - **Tzanck cells** are **acantholytic keratinocytes** characterized by loss of intercellular connections, resulting in rounded cells with **large nuclei** and **perinuclear halos**. - They are classically seen in **pemphigus vulgaris** and other acantholytic disorders on **Tzanck smear** preparation. - The Tzanck smear is a simple bedside diagnostic test where the base of a blister is scraped and examined microscopically after staining. *Fibroblast* - **Fibroblasts** are mesenchymal cells in the **dermis** that produce **collagen** and extracellular matrix components. - They are not epithelial cells and do not undergo acantholysis to form Tzanck cells. *Neutrophil* - **Neutrophils** are polymorphonuclear leukocytes involved in acute inflammatory responses and fighting bacterial infections. - They may infiltrate skin lesions but do not transform into Tzanck cells, which are specifically altered keratinocytes. *Lymphocyte* - **Lymphocytes** (T cells and B cells) are immune cells involved in **adaptive immunity**. - They are not the cell type from which Tzanck cells originate; Tzanck cells are acantholytic epidermal keratinocytes.

Q: What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?

Urease breath test. ***Urease breath test*** - The **urea breath test** is highly sensitive and specific for detecting active *H. pylori* infection and its eradication by measuring radioactive or non-radioactive labeled carbon dioxide released from metabolizing urea. - It is a non-invasive test preferred after treatment to confirm eradication, as it directly detects bacterial urease activity. *Culture* - **Culture** requires an invasive endoscopic biopsy, is expensive, and takes several days to yield results; therefore, it is not the preferred method for routine eradication confirmation. - While it offers the advantage of **antibiotic susceptibility testing**, its invasiveness and turnaround time make it less practical for post-treatment assessment. *Serological test* - **Serological tests** (blood tests for antibodies) remain positive for **H. pylori antibodies** for extended periods even after successful eradication, rendering them unsuitable for confirming eradication. - These tests primarily indicate past exposure rather than current, active infection. *Biopsy urease test* - A **biopsy urease test** involves an invasive endoscopy to obtain a tissue sample, which is then tested for urease activity. - Although useful for initial diagnosis, its invasiveness makes it less preferred for confirming eradication compared to the non-invasive breath test.

Q: Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to?

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor. ***Deficiency of C1 inhibitor*** - **Hereditary angioedema (HAE)** is caused by a genetic deficiency or dysfunction of the **C1 esterase inhibitor (C1-INH)** protein. - C1-INH normally regulates the **complement system**, kinin system (mediating **bradykinin** release), and coagulation pathways, and its deficiency leads to uncontrolled activation and excessive bradykinin production, causing angioedema. *Deficiency of NADPH oxidase* - A deficiency in **NADPH oxidase** is associated with **Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)**, a primary immunodeficiency characterized by recurrent bacterial and fungal infections due to impaired phagocytic oxidative burst. - It does not cause angioedema, which involves fluid extravasation rather than impaired microbial killing. *Deficiency of MPO* - **Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency** typically leads to mild to moderate impairment in the killing of certain microorganisms by phagocytes but is often asymptomatic or causes only recurrent candidal infections. - It is not linked to the pathogenesis of angioedema, which involves dysregulation of vasoactive peptides. *Deficiency of properdin* - A deficiency in **properdin** affects the **alternative pathway of the complement system**, increasing susceptibility to **Neisseria infections**. - While properdin is part of the complement system, its deficiency does not directly lead to the uncontrolled production of bradykinin, which is the primary mediator in angioedema due to C1-INH deficiency.

Q: What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?

Increased amplitude of QRS. ***Increased amplitude of QRS*** - In **athletes' hearts**, the heart muscle (myocardium) undergoes physiological adaptations, including **left ventricular hypertrophy**, which leads to an **increased amplitude of the QRS complex** on an ECG. - This is a normal and beneficial adaptation that enhances cardiac output and efficiency during exercise. *Bradycardia* - While **bradycardia** (a slower heart rate) is very common in athletes due to increased **vagal tone** and improved cardiac efficiency, it is not the most direct characteristic finding *on an ECG* reflecting the structural changes of athletic heart syndrome. - Bradycardia is a rate finding, not a waveform amplitude change reflecting myocardial mass. *Decreased QT interval* - A **decreased QT interval** is not a typical characteristic of an athlete's heart; in fact, there is usually no significant change or a slight prolongation due to bradycardia, but it remains within normal limits. - A pathologically short QT interval can indicate specific genetic channelopathies, which are unrelated to athletic adaptation. *U-waves* - **U-waves** are small positive deflections sometimes seen after the T wave, often associated with **bradycardia** or **hypokalemia**. - While athletes can have bradycardia, U-waves are not a consistent or defining feature of an athlete's heart syndrome itself, and their presence can also indicate other conditions.

Q: Iris coloboma is most common in which location?

Inferonasal. ***Inferonasal*** - **Iris coloboma** most commonly occurs in the **inferonasal quadrant** (at approximately the **6 o'clock position**) - This location corresponds to the site of the **embryonic fetal fissure** (choroidal fissure), which normally closes during the **5th to 7th week of gestation** - When the fetal fissure fails to close completely, it results in a **keyhole-shaped defect** in the iris, and potentially involves other ocular structures (ciliary body, choroid, retina, optic nerve) along the same inferonasal axis - This is a well-established anatomical pattern seen in **congenital colobomas** *Inferotemporal* - The inferotemporal quadrant is **not the typical location** for iris coloboma - Embryologically, the fetal fissure does not extend into the temporal region, making colobomas in this location extremely rare - Colobomas outside the inferonasal location are usually **atypical colobomas** caused by different mechanisms *Superotemporal* - The superotemporal quadrant is **not associated** with the fetal fissure closure pathway - Colobomas in this location would be considered atypical and not related to embryonic fissure closure defects - This is not a common presentation for congenital iris coloboma *Superonasal* - The superonasal quadrant is also **not part of the fetal fissure pathway** - While superior colobomas can occasionally occur as atypical variants, they do not represent the classic congenital coloboma pattern - The embryological basis for typical coloboma formation does not involve the superior regions of the eye

Q: In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?

Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints. ***Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints*** - In neglected cases of **clubfoot (CTEV)**, a **triple arthrodesis** is performed to correct the deformity. - This procedure involves the fusion of the **subtalar (talocalcaneal)**, **talonavicular**, and **calcaneocuboid joints** to provide a stable, plantigrade foot. *Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - The **tibiotalar joint (ankle joint)** is generally preserved in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to maintain ankle motion. - Fusing the tibiotalar joint would significantly **reduce ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion**, leading to a stiff ankle. *None of the above joints* - This option is incorrect because the fusion of specific joints is a recognized surgical treatment for severe, neglected CTEV. - **Triple arthrodesis** is a well-established procedure for correcting rigid foot deformities. *Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - As mentioned, fusion of the **ankle joint (tibiotalar joint)** is generally avoided in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to preserve functional ankle motion. - The goal is to stabilize the foot while retaining as much articulation as possible in the ankle itself.

Q: Which of the following statements about hepatic adenoma is true?

Associated with OCP use. ***Associated with OCP use*** - Hepatic adenomas have a **strong association** with **oral contraceptive pill (OCP)** use, particularly in young women of childbearing age. - The risk increases with **prolonged OCP use** and higher estrogen doses, with lesions often regressing after discontinuation. *Common in older females* - Hepatic adenomas predominantly occur in **young women** aged 20-40 years, not older females. - The peak incidence coincides with **reproductive age** and OCP usage patterns. *Cold on isotope scan* - This statement is **correct** - hepatic adenomas appear **cold** on **99mTc-sulfur colloid scintigraphy** due to **absence of Kupffer cells**. - The cold appearance helps differentiate adenomas from **focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)**, which appears hot. *Typically malignant tumor* - Hepatic adenomas are **benign lesions**, not malignant tumors. - While **malignant transformation** can occur rarely (<5%), they are classified as benign neoplasms. *Hot on isotope scan* - This is **incorrect** - hepatic adenomas appear **cold** on isotope scans due to lack of **reticuloendothelial cells**. - **Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)** appears hot, which helps in differential diagnosis.

Q: Best treatment for nocturnal enuresis is

Bed alarm. ***Bed alarm*** - **Bed alarms** are considered the most effective long-term treatment for nocturnal enuresis by conditioning the child to wake up to a full bladder. - This method has a high success rate and a lower relapse rate compared to pharmacological treatments. *Positive reinforcement* - While helpful for building confidence and encouraging adherence to treatment, **positive reinforcement** alone is generally not sufficient to cure nocturnal enuresis. - It works best as an adjunct to other established treatments, like bed alarms, to motivate the child. *Punishment* - **Punishment** is not an effective or appropriate treatment for nocturnal enuresis and can be psychologically harmful to the child. - Enuresis is an involuntary condition, and punishment can lead to increased stress, anxiety, and shame, potentially worsening the problem. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** (DDAVP) is a synthetic analog of antidiuretic hormone and can reduce urine production at night, offering a short-term solution. - It is effective in reducing the frequency of wet nights but has a higher relapse rate once discontinued, and it does not cure the underlying problem like a bed alarm does.

Q: What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?

150 mg/dl. ***150 mg/dl*** - A blood glucose level greater than **150 mg/dL** is the **standard threshold** most commonly taught and used for defining **hyperglycemia** in neonates. - This value is widely accepted in clinical practice and guides decisions regarding **glucose management** and potential **insulin therapy** in this population. - This threshold is particularly relevant for term and late preterm neonates. *125 mg/dl* - While **125 mg/dL** represents an elevated glucose level and some newer guidelines consider this as a threshold (especially >7 mmol/L), it is **not the standard taught threshold** of 150 mg/dL. - For examination purposes, **150 mg/dL** remains the recognized standard definition. *180 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **180 mg/dL** indicates **severe hyperglycemia** rather than the initial threshold for defining hyperglycemia. - While some protocols for extremely preterm infants may use higher cutoffs, this exceeds the standard diagnostic threshold. - Intervention is typically initiated well before reaching this level to prevent complications. *100 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **100 mg/dL** in a neonate falls within the **normal range**, not hyperglycemia. - This level is desirable for proper brain development and metabolic function. - Normal neonatal glucose ranges from approximately **40-100 mg/dL** in the first days of life.

Q: What is the primary mechanism underlying hyperthermia?

Failure of thermoregulation. ***Failure of thermoregulation*** - **Hyperthermia** is fundamentally caused by the body's inability to dissipate heat effectively, leading to an uncontrolled rise in core body temperature. - This differentiates it from fever, where the **hypothalamic set point** is elevated, and the body actively tries to reach that higher temperature. *Temperature > 41.5°C* - While a temperature exceeding **41.5°C** is often seen in severe hyperthermia, it is a *consequence* of the failure of thermoregulation, not its primary cause. - This extreme temperature indicates a critical state, but the underlying problem is the body's inability to control internal heat. *Temperature > 40°C with autonomic dysfunction* - A temperature above **40°C** combined with **autonomic dysfunction** (e.g., altered mental status, seizures) describes a severe *manifestation* of hyperthermia, often seen in heat stroke. - This is a symptom complex resulting from, rather than the primary cause of, the body's thermoregulatory failure. *No change in hypothalamic set point* - This statement is a *characteristic* of hyperthermia, distinguishing it from fever, where the **hypothalamic set point** is elevated. - However, the *absence* of this change is not the primary cause; rather, the underlying issue is the body's inability to manage its heat load despite a normal set point.

Question 1

What type of cell are Tzanck cells commonly associated with in skin conditions?

Accepted Answer

Keratinocyte

Answer

Neutrophil

Answer

Lymphocyte

Answer

Fibroblast

Question 2

What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?

Accepted Answer

Urease breath test

Answer

Culture

Answer

Serological test

Answer

Biopsy urease test

Question 3

Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to?

Accepted Answer

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor

Answer

Deficiency of NADPH oxidase

Answer

Deficiency of MPO

Answer

Deficiency of properdin

Question 4

What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Increased amplitude of QRS

Answer

Decreased QT interval

Answer

U-waves

Answer

Bradycardia

Question 5

Iris coloboma is most common in which location?

Accepted Answer

Inferonasal

Answer

Superotemporal

Answer

Inferotemporal

Answer

Superonasal

Question 6

In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?

Accepted Answer

Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints

Answer

Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints

Answer

None of the above joints

Answer

Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints

Question 7

Which of the following statements about hepatic adenoma is true?

Accepted Answer

Associated with OCP use

Answer

Common in older females

Answer

Cold on isotope scan

Answer

Typically malignant tumor

Answer

Hot on isotope scan

Question 8

Best treatment for nocturnal enuresis is

Accepted Answer

Bed alarm

Answer

Positive reinforcement

Answer

Punishment

Answer

Desmopressin

Question 9

What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?

Accepted Answer

150 mg/dl

Answer

180 mg/dl

Answer

100 mg/dl

Answer

125 mg/dl

Question 10

What is the primary mechanism underlying hyperthermia?

Accepted Answer

Failure of thermoregulation

Answer

Temperature > 40°C with autonomic dysfunction

Answer

Temperature > 41.5°C

Answer

No change in hypothalamic set point

NEET-PG 2012

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics

Physiology