Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhich circuit is specifically designed for anaesthesia in infants?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1141: Which circuit is specifically designed for anaesthesia in infants?
- A. Bains circuit
- B. Magill circuit
- C. Ayres t piece (Correct Answer)
- D. Water's circuit
Explanation: ***Ayres t piece*** - The **Ayres t piece (Jackson-Rees modification)** lacks a reservoir bag, which reduces **dead space** and resistance, making it ideal for infants with low tidal volumes. - Its simple design and **low resistance** minimize the work of breathing, crucial for neonates and infants. *Bains circuit* - The Bains circuit is a **modified Mapleson D system** often used in older children and adults. - It features a concentric design with a fresh gas flow lumen inside the expiratory limb, making it suitable for moderate to high fresh gas flows but less ideal for the very low tidal volumes of infants. *Magill circuit* - The Magill circuit is a **Mapleson A system**, most efficient for **spontaneous ventilation** in adults, requiring low fresh gas flows. - Its design with the APL valve near the patient leads to significant rebreathing if used with controlled ventilation or in infants due to their small tidal volumes. *Water's circuit* - The Water's circuit (also known as the **Mapleson E or F system**) is primarily used as an open-system mask for **spontaneous respiration**, often for induction or emergency situations. - It provides minimal control over ventilation and is generally not preferred for precise anesthesia management in any age group, especially not infants.
Dermatology
2 questionsIn which of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon most commonly observed?
Which of the following is not a feature of dermatomyositis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1141: In which of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon most commonly observed?
- A. Psoriasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Lichen planus
- C. All of the options
- D. Viral warts
Explanation: ***Correct: Psoriasis*** - **Psoriasis** is the **most classic and commonly cited example** of the Koebner phenomenon (isomorphic response) - New psoriatic plaques characteristically develop at sites of cutaneous trauma, scratches, or surgical incisions in 25-50% of psoriasis patients - This is a **pathognomonic feature** frequently tested in competitive exams and considered the prototype condition for demonstrating this phenomenon - The mechanism involves inflammatory cascades triggered by trauma in genetically predisposed skin *Incorrect: Lichen planus* - While lichen planus does exhibit the Koebner phenomenon with purplish polygonal papules appearing along scratch lines, it is **less commonly observed** compared to psoriasis - Seen in approximately 10-25% of lichen planus cases - Not considered the primary example when teaching about Koebner phenomenon *Incorrect: Viral warts* - Viral warts can demonstrate **pseudo-Koebner phenomenon** where new warts form along trauma lines due to viral inoculation - This is more accurately described as **autoinoculation** rather than true isomorphic response - Less commonly discussed in the context of classic Koebner phenomenon compared to psoriasis *Incorrect: All of the options* - While all three conditions can show Koebner-like responses, the question asks for "**most commonly observed**" - Psoriasis remains the **gold standard** and most frequently encountered example in clinical practice and medical literature
Question 1142: Which of the following is not a feature of dermatomyositis?
- A. Salmon Patch (Correct Answer)
- B. Periungual telangiectasias
- C. Gottron's patch
- D. Mechanic's hands
Explanation: ***Salmon Patch*** - A **salmon patch** (also known as a nevus simplex or stork bite) is a common, benign vascular birthmark that presents as a flat, red or pink patch. - It is **not associated with dermatomyositis** and has no pathogenic link to the condition. *Gottron's patch* - **Gottron's patches** are a classic cutaneous manifestation of dermatomyositis, characterized by erythematous, violaceous, or dusky red papules or plaques over the **extensor surfaces of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints**. - Their presence is highly suggestive of dermatomyositis, often preceding or co-occurring with muscle weakness. *Periungual telangiectasias* - **Periungual telangiectasias** are dilated capillaries around the nail folds and are a common skin manifestation of dermatomyositis. - They represent small vessel vasculopathy, a histological feature, and suggest microvascular damage often seen in systemic connective tissue diseases like dermatomyositis. *Mechanic's hands* - **Mechanic's hands** are a cutaneous feature seen in dermatomyositis (and other inflammatory myopathies like antisynthetase syndrome). - They are characterized by **hyperkeratosis**, fissuring, and scaling of the skin, particularly on the lateral and palmar aspects of the fingers, resembling the hands of a manual laborer.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
7 questionsPreferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?
Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?
In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?
Newborn can be given breast milk after how much time following normal delivery?
What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?
The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is
What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1141: Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?
- A. Cu IUD
- B. Hysterectomy
- C. NOVA T
- D. OCPs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***OCPs*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive-aged women, particularly when contraception is also desired. - They work by stabilizing the **endometrial lining**, reducing menstrual blood loss and regulating cycles. *NOVA T* - NOVA T is a type of **copper IUD (intrauterine device)**, which is known to potentially *increase* menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Its primary function is contraception, not the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Cu IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (Cu IUD)** is generally contraindicated in women with menorrhagia because it can exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding. - While an effective contraceptive, it does not offer therapeutic benefits for managing heavy periods. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a surgical procedure for removing the uterus and is considered a definitive treatment for menorrhagia. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** with irreversible loss of fertility, typically reserved for severe cases where conservative treatments have failed or when other uterine pathology is present.
Question 1142: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?
- A. Vasa previa (Correct Answer)
- B. Placenta praevia
- C. Polyhydramnios
- D. Oligohydramnios
Explanation: ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.
Question 1143: In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?
- A. 10-14 weeks
- B. 14-18 weeks
- C. 18-22 weeks
- D. 6 to 10 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***6 to 10 weeks*** - **Hegar's sign** is a softening of the lower uterine segment, which is a probable sign of pregnancy detected during a **bimanual examination**. - This softening typically becomes noticeable and palpable between **6 and 10 weeks of gestation** due to increased vascularity and edema in the area. *10-14 weeks* - While the uterus continues to soften and enlarge, **Hegar's sign** is usually established earlier, making it less specific or prominent for confirmation in this later window. - At this stage, other signs of pregnancy, such as a **palpable fetal outline** or **fetal heart tones**, become more readily apparent. *14-18 weeks* - By this gestational period, the uterus is significantly larger and has risen out of the pelvic cavity, making the specific assessment of the **lower uterine segment's compressibility** as an isolated sign less relevant. - **Fetal movements** (quickening) may also be felt during this time, serving as a more direct indicator of pregnancy. *18-22 weeks* - At these later weeks, the uterus is distinctly enlarged, and much of the diagnosis relies on **fundal height assessment** and further monitoring of fetal development. - **Hegar's sign** is a very early sign of pregnancy and would not be used for confirmation in this advanced stage.
Question 1144: Newborn can be given breast milk after how much time following normal delivery?
- A. Half hour
- B. 2 hours
- C. 1 hour (Correct Answer)
- D. 3 hours
Explanation: ***1 hour*** - Initiating breastfeeding **within 1 hour** after a normal vaginal delivery is the **WHO and UNICEF recommended standard** for optimal newborn care. - This practice, often called the **"golden hour"**, allows the newborn to benefit from **colostrum** (rich in antibodies and nutrients), promotes **mother-infant bonding**, and helps stimulate **uterine contractions** to reduce postpartum hemorrhage. - Early initiation within this timeframe supports **successful establishment of breastfeeding** and improves exclusive breastfeeding rates. *Half hour* - While initiating breastfeeding within 30 minutes is **excellent and encouraged**, the standard guideline allows up to 1 hour. - Immediate or very early feeding (within 30 minutes) is ideal when mother and baby are stable, but the flexibility up to 1 hour accommodates immediate postpartum care needs. *2 hours* - Delaying breastfeeding until 2 hours post-delivery **exceeds the recommended window** and can lead to the infant becoming **less alert** and less interested in feeding. - This delay is associated with **lower rates of successful exclusive breastfeeding** and may impact milk supply establishment. *3 hours* - A 3-hour delay in initiating breastfeeding is **significantly beyond recommended guidelines** after a normal, uncomplicated delivery. - Such delays can contribute to **poor latch**, **infant fatigue**, increased **formula supplementation**, and may hinder **long-term breastfeeding success**.
Question 1145: What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?
- A. Serum estrogen
- B. Serum progesterone (Correct Answer)
- C. Both serum estrogen and progesterone
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Serum progesterone*** - A **serum progesterone level** of greater than **3 ng/mL (or 10 nmol/L)** in the mid-luteal phase (approximately 7 days after the presumed ovulation) reliably indicates that ovulation has occurred. - After ovulation, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces progesterone, causing a characteristic rise in its serum level. *Serum estrogen* - Estrogen levels **peak before ovulation** to trigger the LH surge and also rise during the luteal phase, but a single measurement is not a reliable indicator that ovulation has successfully occurred. - Estrogen levels can fluctuate due to various factors and do not directly confirm the **formation and function of a corpus luteum** as progesterone does. *Both serum estrogen and progesterone* - While both hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle, relying on both simultaneously for confirming *occurred* ovulation is not the most precise method. - A significant rise in **progesterone** *after* the presumed ovulatory event is the key reliable biomarker. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **serum progesterone** is a well-established and reliable test for confirming ovulation.
Question 1146: The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is
- A. 34 weeks
- B. 36 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 38 weeks
- D. 40 weeks
Explanation: ***36 weeks*** - At **36 weeks gestation**, there is still enough **amniotic fluid** and fetal size is not too large, which allows for successful manipulation. - This timing is particularly optimal for **multiparous women** according to **RCOG guidelines** (36-37 weeks). - This timing also minimizes the risk of **spontaneous reversion** back to a breech presentation before labor begins. - Balances adequate fetal maturity with sufficient uterine space for successful version. *34 weeks* - Performing an external cephalic version (ECV) at 34 weeks has a lower success rate and a higher chance of **spontaneous reversion** due to the smaller fetal size and relatively more amniotic fluid. - The chance of **spontaneous cephalic version** (natural turning) is still significant at this stage, making an earlier intervention potentially unnecessary. - Too early for routine ECV as many breech presentations spontaneously convert to cephalic before 36 weeks. *38 weeks* - By 38 weeks, the fetus is larger and there is proportionally less **amniotic fluid**, which makes successful external version more difficult and painful for the mother. - While **ACOG recommends 37-38 weeks**, the success rate decreases with advancing gestation due to reduced uterine space. - The risk of **uterine contractions** and iatrogenic induction of labor is higher at this gestation. *40 weeks* - At 40 weeks, the fetus is at term and much larger, occupying most of the uterine cavity, significantly reducing the chances of a successful external version. - The risk of complications such as **placental abruption**, **cord compression**, and premature labor is increased. - Success rates are markedly lower, making routine ECV at this stage generally not recommended.
Question 1147: What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?
- A. Shoulder (Correct Answer)
- B. Face
- C. Vertex
- D. Brow
Explanation: ***Shoulder*** - In a **transverse lie**, the fetal **shoulder** is the part that presents over the pelvic inlet. - This occurs when the fetal long axis is 90 degrees to the maternal spine. *Face* - A **face presentation** is a type of **cephalic presentation** where the head is hyperextended, and the face is the presenting part. - This is not characteristic of a transverse lie. *Vertex* - A **vertex presentation** is the most common and ideal **cephalic presentation**, where the head is flexed and the top of the head (vertex) is the presenting part. - This indicates a longitudinal lie, not a transverse lie. *Brow* - A **brow presentation** is also a type of **cephalic presentation** where the fetal head is partially extended, and the brow is the presenting part. - Like vertex and face presentations, this occurs with a longitudinal fetal lie.