NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: In which context can helium replace nitrogen as a diluent gas in oxygen mixtures?

None of the options. **None of the options** - This question implies that helium might replace *another noble gas* as a diluent, but the correct application is for helium to replace **nitrogen** in oxygen mixtures, particularly in **diving applications**. This question likely has a flaw in its premise if expecting one of the noble gases listed to be the 'replacement' for nitrogen, as helium *is* the replacement. - Helium is used instead of nitrogen in diving gases (**trimix, heliox**) for deep dives because it is less narcotic than nitrogen under pressure, reducing the risk of **nitrogen narcosis**. *Argon* - **Argon** is denser than nitrogen and has a higher narcotic potential at depth, making it unsuitable as a replacement for nitrogen in diving gases. - It is sometimes used during **dry suit inflation** for insulation due to its low thermal conductivity, but not as a breathing gas diluent. *Xenon* - **Xenon** is a potent anesthetic agent, even at atmospheric pressure, due to its high lipid solubility. - Its use as a diluent would cause severe **narcosis** and render a diver unconscious, making it entirely inappropriate for diving mixtures. *Helium* - While helium is indeed the gas that replaces nitrogen as a diluent in oxygen mixtures for deep diving, it being listed as an option here suggests a misunderstanding of the question's phrasing. The question is asking for **in which context** helium can replace nitrogen, not asking to identify helium itself as the replacement. - Given the other options are noble gases that *cannot* replace nitrogen in this context, "None of the options" is the most accurate answer if the question implies picking from the provided list for a replacement *for helium* or a suitable *alternative* to helium, which isn't the case here.

Q: Which of the following statements about spider telangiectasia is false?

More common in males. ***More common in males*** - This statement is **FALSE** because spider telangiectasias (spider nevi/spider angiomas) are more commonly observed in **females**, often due to hormonal influences like **estrogen**. - They are frequently associated with conditions such as **pregnancy**, **oral contraceptive use**, or **chronic liver disease**, highlighting a female predominance. - The estrogen-dependent nature explains their higher prevalence in women of reproductive age. *Can be caused by trauma* - This statement is **TRUE** in a broader sense, though classical spider telangiectasias are primarily hormonally-mediated rather than traumatic. - While **simple telangiectasias** can develop after localized trauma or repeated pressure, spider telangiectasias have a characteristic morphology (central arteriole with radiating vessels) and are typically associated with **estrogen excess** or **liver disease**. - For exam purposes, this is considered a true statement as telangiectatic vessels can be influenced by local factors. *Light therapy for treatment* - This statement is **TRUE**. **Laser therapy**, specifically **pulsed dye laser (PDL)** or **intense pulsed light (IPL)**, is the most effective treatment for spider telangiectasias. - The laser selectively targets **hemoglobin** in the dilated vessels, causing photocoagulation and vessel obliteration, leading to excellent cosmetic results. *May be associated with liver disease* - This statement is **TRUE**. Spider telangiectasias are a well-recognized cutaneous manifestation of **chronic liver disease**, especially **cirrhosis**. - Impaired hepatic function leads to decreased **estrogen metabolism** (hyperestrogenemia), contributing to the development of these vascular lesions. - They are one of the stigmata of chronic liver disease, along with palmar erythema and gynecomastia.

Q: Phrynoderma is primarily associated with a deficiency of which of the following?

Vitamin A. ***Vitamin A*** - **Phrynoderma** (toad skin) has been **classically attributed to vitamin A deficiency** in traditional medical literature and was the accepted answer in historical examinations. - It presents as **follicular hyperkeratosis** with dry, scaly, rough skin having prominent hair follicles with a sandpaper-like texture. - However, **modern evidence** suggests phrynoderma is a **multifactorial condition** often involving **multiple nutritional deficiencies**, with vitamin A being one important contributor among others. *Essential fatty acid* - Deficiency of **essential fatty acids** (linoleic and alpha-linolenic acid) causes **skin dryness, flakiness, and follicular hyperkeratosis**. - **Recent studies** indicate EFA deficiency may play a **significant role** in phrynoderma, particularly in developing countries where multiple nutritional deficiencies coexist. - The clinical presentation can closely mimic vitamin A deficiency-related skin changes. *Vitamin D* - Deficiency of **vitamin D** primarily causes **rickets** in children and **osteomalacia** in adults with bone pain, muscle weakness, and skeletal deformities. - While vitamin D has roles in skin health, its deficiency does not directly cause the follicular hyperkeratosis characteristic of phrynoderma. *Niacin* - **Niacin (vitamin B3)** deficiency causes **pellagra** with the classic \"3 Ds\": **dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia**. - Pellagra dermatitis is typically **symmetrical in sun-exposed areas** with redness, scaling, and hyperpigmentation—distinctly different from the follicular pattern of phrynoderma.

Q: Chemotherapeutic Agent of Choice for the treatment of CML?

Imatinib. ***Imatinib*** - **Imatinib** is a **tyrosine kinase inhibitor** specifically targeting the **BCR-ABL fusion protein**, which is the hallmark of CML [1][2]. - It dramatically improved the prognosis of CML patients, making it the **first-line therapy** and agent of choice due to its high efficacy and relatively low toxicity compared to conventional chemotherapy [2]. *Vincristine* - **Vincristine** is a **vinca alkaloid** that inhibits microtubule formation, primarily used in acute leukemias and lymphomas. - It is not the agent of choice for CML due to its different mechanism of action and the availability of more targeted therapies for CML. *Cyclophosphamide* - **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** that causes DNA damage, used in various cancers and autoimmune diseases. - While it can be used in some hematologic malignancies, it is not the preferred or most effective treatment for CML, especially given the success of targeted therapies. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **antimetabolite** that interferes with DNA synthesis, commonly used in acute leukemias, lymphomas, and autoimmune conditions. - It is not considered the chemotherapeutic agent of choice for CML, as its mechanism of action is not specific to the BCR-ABL anomaly characteristic of CML.

Q: Which of the following statements about Hegar's sign is false?

Present in 2/3rd of cases. ***Present in 2/3rd of cases*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this question. - Hegar's sign, while a classic sign of pregnancy, is not consistently present in 2/3rds of cases with such statistical certainty. - Its detectability varies significantly depending on **gestational age** (optimal 6-12 weeks), **uterine position** (retroverted uterus makes it harder), **examiner experience**, and **patient body habitus**. - This specific "2/3rd" frequency claim lacks strong evidence-based support in obstetric literature. *Bimanual palpation method* - This statement is TRUE. - **Hegar's sign** is elicited by **bimanual pelvic examination** where one hand is placed on the abdomen and the other in the vagina to palpate the softening and compressibility of the **lower uterine segment** (isthmus). - The examiner feels the cervix and uterine fundus separately with the soft isthmus compressed between the examining fingers. *Difficult in obese* - This statement is TRUE. - **Obesity** makes any deep abdominal or pelvic palpation more challenging due to increased adipose tissue. - The **softening of the lower uterine segment** is harder to appreciate, reducing the sensitivity of detecting Hegar's sign in obese patients. *Can be done at 14 weeks* - This statement is technically TRUE but represents suboptimal timing. - **Hegar's sign** is most reliably detectable between the **6th and 12th weeks of gestation**. - At **14 weeks**, while the examination can still be performed, the uterus has grown significantly and risen into the abdomen, making the lower uterine segment less compressible and the sign much less prominent or absent. - The statement doesn't claim it's "optimal" at 14 weeks, only that it "can be done," which is technically accurate even if clinically impractical.

Q: Most common site of extramedullary relapse of ALL in a 6-year-old boy is

CNS (Central Nervous System). ***CNS (Central Nervous System)*** - The **central nervous system** is the **most common site of extramedullary relapse** in pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), accounting for the majority of extramedullary relapses. - CNS is an immunologically privileged sanctuary site where chemotherapy penetration is limited due to the blood-brain barrier. - CNS relapse presents with symptoms like headache, vomiting, cranial nerve palsies, or signs of increased intracranial pressure and requires intrathecal chemotherapy and cranial irradiation. - Prophylactic CNS therapy is a standard component of ALL treatment protocols to prevent CNS relapse. *Testes* - **Testes** are the **second most common** site of extramedullary relapse and the most common **solid organ** site in boys with ALL. - Like the CNS, testes are immunologically privileged sites with limited chemotherapy penetration. - Testicular relapse presents as painless testicular enlargement (unilateral or bilateral) and requires testicular radiation plus systemic therapy intensification. *Liver* - While **hepatic infiltration** can occur in ALL, the liver is not a common site for **isolated extramedullary relapse**. - Hepatic involvement typically indicates widespread systemic disease rather than a primary relapse site. *Lung* - **Pulmonary involvement** in ALL is rare as an isolated extramedullary relapse site. - Lung findings in ALL patients are more commonly due to infection, leukostasis in hyperleukocytosis, or disseminated disease.

Q: A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?

Propranolol. ***Propranolol*** - **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** that is indicated for **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** (HCM) in infants, especially those of diabetic mothers. - It works by reducing the **heart rate** and **myocardial contractility**, which decreases the **left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction** caused by the hypertrophied septum. *Digoxin* - **Digoxin** is a **positive inotrope**, meaning it increases the force of myocardial contraction. - This effect would worsen the **outflow tract obstruction** in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and is therefore contraindicated. *Frusemide* - **Frusemide** is a **diuretic** used to manage **fluid overload** and **congestive heart failure**. - While fluid management can be part of heart failure treatment, frusemide does not directly address the underlying **asymmetric septal hypertrophy** or **LVOT obstruction** in this context. *Isoptin* - **Isoptin** (verapamil) is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**. - While some calcium channel blockers can be used in adult hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, verapamil is generally avoided in infants with HCM due to its potential for **negative inotropic effects** and worsening hypotension, especially in the presence of outflow obstruction, and the risk of significant **bradycardia** and **atrioventricular block**.

Q: Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?

Paracetamol. ***Paracetamol*** - It is a widely used and generally **safe analgesic** and antipyretic often prescribed for mild to moderate pain in an outpatient setting. - Its favorable side effect profile and availability as an **over-the-counter (OTC)** medication make it a first-choice drug for many common pain conditions. *Diclofenac* - While it is an effective NSAID used for pain and inflammation, its use can be associated with **gastrointestinal side effects** like ulcers and bleeding, as well as cardiovascular risks. - It is often reserved for more significant inflammatory pain or when other analgesics are insufficient, and may require more careful monitoring in an outpatient setting. *Ibuprofen* - Similar to diclofenac, Ibuprofen is an **NSAID** which is effective for pain and inflammation. However, it also carries risks of **gastrointestinal irritation** and renal side effects, especially with prolonged use or in certain patient populations. - While available OTC, its use for routine outpatient analgesia may be less preferred than paracetamol in some cases due to its GI and renal side effect profile. *Tramadol* - Tramadol is a **central acting opioid analgesic** with a higher potential for side effects such as nausea, dizziness, constipation, and the risk of dependence or abuse. - It is typically reserved for moderate to severe pain that is not adequately managed by non-opioid analgesics, and its prescription often involves more stringent monitoring than paracetamol.

Q: Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?

Progesterone. ***Progesterone*** - The **decidual reaction** is a specific uterine stromal cell differentiation process that prepares the endometrium for **implantation and pregnancy maintenance**. - This process is primarily induced and maintained by **progesterone**, which causes stromal cells to enlarge, accumulate glycogen and lipids, and secrete various factors essential for embryonic development. *Estrogen* - Estrogen plays a crucial role in the **proliferation of the endometrium** during the follicular phase, building up the uterine lining. - While estrogen is essential, it acts in conjunction with progesterone; progesterone is the **primary hormone** responsible for the decidualization process itself. *LH* - Luteinizing hormone (LH) is responsible for triggering **ovulation** and stimulating the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. - LH's direct role is not in the decidual reaction of the endometrium but rather in the **ovarian events** that lead to the production of the hormones that cause decidualization. *FSH* - Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is vital for the growth and maturation of **ovarian follicles** and **estrogen production**. - FSH does not directly induce the decidual reaction but facilitates the production of estrogen, which then contributes to endometrial proliferation, a precursor to progesterone's decidualizing effect.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?

Aortic aneurysm. ***Aortic aneurysm*** - An **aortic aneurysm** is located **anterior to the vertebral column** and primarily affects the anterior aspect of the vertebral bodies, causing **anterior scalloping** due to chronic pulsatile erosion, not posterior scalloping. - Posterior scalloping requires intraspinal pathology that expands the spinal canal from within; an aortic aneurysm is extraspinal and anterior, making it the **least likely** cause of posterior scalloping. *Neurofibromatosis* - **Neurofibromatosis** commonly causes posterior vertebral scalloping due to **dural ectasia** (widening of the dural sac) and pressure erosion from expanding neurofibromas within the spinal canal. - This condition is also associated with paraspinal masses, posterior vertebral body erosion, and scoliosis. *Astrocytoma* - An **intramedullary astrocytoma** within the spinal cord can lead to expansion of the cord that causes chronic pressure on the posterior vertebral bodies from within the spinal canal. - This slow-growing intraspinal tumor gradually remodels the bone, causing posterior scalloping. *Ependymoma* - Similar to astrocytoma, an **intramedullary ependymoma** (the most common primary intramedullary tumor in adults) can enlarge the spinal cord, leading to pressure erosion on the posterior vertebral bodies. - This is a characteristic feature of slowly growing intraspinal masses, which cause remodeling of the bony spinal canal.

Question 1

In which context can helium replace nitrogen as a diluent gas in oxygen mixtures?

Accepted Answer

None of the options

Answer

Argon

Answer

Xenon

Answer

Helium

Question 2

Which of the following statements about spider telangiectasia is false?

Accepted Answer

More common in males

Answer

Light therapy for treatment

Answer

May be associated with liver disease

Answer

Can be caused by trauma

Question 3

Phrynoderma is primarily associated with a deficiency of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Vitamin A

Answer

Essential fatty acid

Answer

Vitamin D

Answer

Niacin

Question 4

Chemotherapeutic Agent of Choice for the treatment of CML?

Accepted Answer

Imatinib

Answer

Vincristine

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Answer

Methotrexate

Question 5

Which of the following statements about Hegar's sign is false?

Accepted Answer

Present in 2/3rd of cases

Answer

Bimanual palpation method

Answer

Difficult in obese

Answer

Can be done at 14 weeks

Question 6

Most common site of extramedullary relapse of ALL in a 6-year-old boy is

Accepted Answer

CNS (Central Nervous System)

Answer

Testes

Answer

Liver

Answer

Lung

Question 7

A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?

Accepted Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Digoxin

Answer

Frusemide

Answer

Isoptin

Question 8

Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?

Accepted Answer

Paracetamol

Answer

Diclofenac

Answer

Ibuprofen

Answer

Tramadol

Question 9

Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?

Accepted Answer

Progesterone

Answer

Estrogen

Answer

LH

Answer

FSH

Question 10

Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?

Accepted Answer

Aortic aneurysm

Answer

Astrocytoma

Answer

Neurofibromatosis

Answer

Ependymoma

NEET-PG 2012

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Radiology