Anatomy
5 questionsThe nutrient artery to the femur is?
Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
Which bone has the maximum anatomical contribution to the floor of the orbit?
Risorius is a muscle of?
Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: The nutrient artery to the femur is?
- A. Profunda femoris artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Femoral artery
- C. Popliteal artery
- D. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation: ***Profunda femoris artery*** - The **profunda femoris artery** (deep femoral artery) is the main blood supply to the **femur's diaphysis** via its perforating branches. - Typically, the **second perforating branch** gives rise to the nutrient artery, which enters the bone through the **nutrient foramen** in the middle third of the femoral shaft. *Femoral artery* - The **femoral artery** is the main artery of the thigh and gives off several branches, including the profunda femoris artery. - While it is the source of blood for the entire lower limb, it does not directly give rise to the main **nutrient artery of the femur**. *Popliteal artery* - The **popliteal artery** is a continuation of the femoral artery in the popliteal fossa behind the knee. - It primarily supplies structures around the knee joint and the lower leg, not the direct **diaphyseal nutrient supply** to the femur. *Medial circumflex femoral artery* - The **medial circumflex femoral artery** primarily supplies the head and neck of the femur, crucial for its vascularity, especially in children. - It does not serve as the **main nutrient artery** for the femoral shaft (diaphysis).
Question 102: Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
- A. Appendix of epididymis (Correct Answer)
- B. Appendix of the testis
- C. Uterine structure
- D. Hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation: The **appendix of the epididymis** is a vestigial structure directly derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males. It is an embryological remnant of this duct, located at the head of the epididymis. *Appendix of the testis* - The **appendix of the testis** (hydatid of Morgagni) is a remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct, not the Wolffian duct. - It is usually found on the upper pole of the testis, typically near the epididymis. *Uterine structure* - **Uterine structures** (uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina) are derived from the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts in females [1]. - The Wolffian ducts largely regress in females due to the absence of testosterone. *Hydatid of Morgagni* - The term **hydatid of Morgagni** can refer to the appendix of the testis (Müllerian duct remnant) or, less commonly, to the appendix of the epididymis (Wolffian duct remnant). - However, in common clinical and anatomical usage, it almost exclusively refers to the **appendix of the testis**, which is a Müllerian duct derivative.
Question 103: Which bone has the maximum anatomical contribution to the floor of the orbit?
- A. Maxillary (Correct Answer)
- B. Zygomatic
- C. Sphenoid
- D. Palatine
Explanation: ***Maxillary*** - The **maxilla** contributes the most significantly to the **orbital floor**, forming approximately **75%** of its surface area. - The orbital plate of the maxilla is a thin, triangular bone that also forms the roof of the **maxillary sinus**. *Zygomatic* - The **zygomatic bone** forms the **lateral wall** and the **lateral portion** of the **orbital floor**. - Its contribution to the overall floor is less extensive than that of the maxilla (approximately 20-25%). *Sphenoid* - The **sphenoid bone** does **NOT** contribute to the **orbital floor** at all. - It forms parts of the **posterior wall** and **lateral wall** (via greater and lesser wings) of the orbit, but has no anatomical contribution to the floor. *Palatine* - The **palatine bone** (via its orbital process) contributes a very small, **posterior-most part** of the **orbital floor**. - Its contribution is minimal (less than 5%) compared to the maxilla and zygomatic bone.
Question 104: Risorius is a muscle of?
- A. Mastication
- B. Deglutition
- C. Facial expression (Correct Answer)
- D. Eye movement
Explanation: Facial expression - The **risorius muscle** retracts the **corner of the mouth** laterally, contributing to smiling or grimacing. - It falls under the category of **mimetic muscles**, all of which are innervated by the **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)**. *Mastication* - Muscles of mastication, such as the **masseter**, **temporalis**, and **pterygoids**, are primarily involved in **chewing** and moving the mandible. - These muscles are innervated by the **trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)**, not the facial nerve. *Deglutition* - Deglutition refers to the process of **swallowing**, involving muscles of the **pharynx** and **larynx**. - Examples include the **palatoglossus**, **stylopharyngeus**, and **superior pharyngeal constrictor**. *Eye movement* - Muscles responsible for eye movement are the **extrinsic ocular muscles**, such as the **recti** and **oblique muscles** [1]. - These muscles are innervated by the **oculomotor (III)**, **trochlear (IV)**, and **abducens (VI)** cranial nerves. *Note: No provided references mention the risorius muscle, mimetic muscles, or muscles of mastication; citations are applied only to supported sub-topics.*
Question 105: Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Latissimus dorsi
- C. Subclavius (Correct Answer)
- D. Serratus anterior
Explanation: ***Subclavius*** - The **subclavius muscle** originates from the first rib and inserts into the inferior surface of the clavicle, acting to **depress the clavicle** and prevent its displacement, thus enhancing shoulder stability during movement. - It plays a crucial role in protecting the underlying **neurovascular structures** (brachial plexus and subclavian vessels) from external trauma to the shoulder. *Pectoralis major* - This large, fan-shaped muscle primarily functions in **adduction, medial rotation, and flexion of the humerus** at the shoulder joint [1]. - It does not directly stabilize the clavicle but rather acts on the arm. *Latissimus dorsi* - The **latissimus dorsi** is a broad muscle of the back responsible for **extension, adduction, and internal rotation of the humerus** [1]. - Its actions are mainly on the humerus and it does not directly stabilize the clavicle. *Serratus anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle primarily **protracts and rotates the scapula**, keeping it pressed against the thoracic wall. - While it's essential for **scapular stability** and overhead arm movements, it does not directly stabilize the clavicle.
Physiology
5 questionsIn bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?
What is the duration of the second heart sound (S2)?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: In bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
- A. Flank
- B. Upper part of thigh
- C. Lower abdominal wall (Correct Answer)
- D. Penis
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Lower abdominal wall*** - **Referred pain** from the bladder is typically felt in the **suprapubic region** of the lower abdominal wall due to shared visceral and somatic afferent innervation. - The **parietal peritoneum** overlying the bladder is innervated by somatic nerves that also supply the abdominal wall. - This convergence of visceral afferents from the bladder and somatic afferents from the abdominal wall at the spinal cord level (particularly S2-S4) results in referred pain to the suprapubic area. *Incorrect Option: Upper part of thigh* - Pain in the upper thigh is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **hip joint**, **femoral nerve**, or **inguinal region**. - Bladder innervation does not primarily refer pain to the upper thigh. *Incorrect Option: Flank* - Flank pain is typically associated with conditions of the **kidneys** or **ureters**, such as **nephrolithiasis** or **pyelonephritis**. - The bladder's referred pain pattern does not usually extend to the flank. *Incorrect Option: Penis* - While bladder irritation can sometimes cause sensations in the penis, it is more often associated with conditions like **urethritis**, **cystitis**, or **prostatitis**. - Direct referred pain from bladder injury to the penis is less common than to the lower abdominal wall.
Question 102: What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?
- A. 5.0 L
- B. 10 L
- C. 1.5 L (Correct Answer)
- D. 2.5 L
Explanation: ***1.5 L*** - The **pancreas** produces approximately **1.5 liters (1200-1500 mL) of pancreatic juice** daily in humans. - This secretion is rich in **digestive enzymes** (amylase, lipase, proteases) and **bicarbonate** for neutralization of gastric acid in the duodenum. - This is the standard value cited in **major physiology textbooks** (Ganong, Guyton & Hall). *2.5 L* - **2.5 liters** overestimates the typical daily pancreatic secretion volume. - This value may represent **combined secretions** from multiple sources or confuse pancreatic output with total upper GI secretions. - Normal pancreatic secretion ranges from **1-2 liters**, making 2.5 L above the physiological range. *5.0 L* - **5.0 liters** represents an abnormally high volume for daily pancreatic secretion alone. - This volume is closer to the **total daily secretions** from stomach, pancreas, and bile combined. - Not consistent with **normal pancreatic physiology**. *10 L* - **10 liters** is grossly excessive for pancreatic secretion and represents approximately the **total volume of all gastrointestinal secretions** (saliva, gastric, pancreatic, bile, intestinal) combined daily. - This is **not physiologically realistic** for pancreatic output alone.
Question 103: What is the duration of the second heart sound (S2)?
- A. 0.15 sec
- B. 0.1 sec
- C. 0.12 sec
- D. 0.08 sec (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***0.08 sec*** - The second heart sound (S2) is composed of two components: A2 (aortic valve closure) and P2 (pulmonic valve closure). The normal duration of S2, encompassing both components, is approximately **0.08 seconds**. - This short duration reflects the rapid closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at the beginning of **diastole**. *0.15sec* - A duration of **0.15 seconds** for S2 is significantly longer than normal, which could indicate abnormal valve function or conditions causing delayed valve closure. - Such prolonged duration might be observed in conditions like **severe pulmonic stenosis** or **pulmonic hypertension**, which are not the typical duration of a healthy S2. *0.12 sec* - A duration of **0.12 seconds** is also longer than the typical normal range for S2. - While still shorter than 0.15 seconds, it could suggest subtle delays in valve closure or splitting that exceeds the usual physiological splitting. *0.1 sec* - A duration of **0.1 seconds** is slightly prolonged but generally falls within a range that might be considered borderline or indicative of minimal physiological variations. - However, in typical healthy individuals, the S2 duration is closer to 0.08 seconds, making 0.1 seconds less precise for the most common duration.
Question 104: Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
- A. Smoothens and coordinates movements (Correct Answer)
- B. Involved in planning and programming motor activities
- C. Involved in maintaining equilibrium
- D. Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes
Explanation: ***Smoothens and coordinates movements*** - The spinocerebellar tract provides the cerebellum with **unconscious proprioceptive information** from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs. - This information allows the cerebellum to compare intended movements with actual movements, thereby **smoothing and coordinating voluntary motor activity**. *Involved in planning and programming motor activities* - This function is primarily attributed to the **cerebral cortex** (e.g., premotor and supplementary motor areas) and the **basal ganglia**. - While the cerebellum is involved in motor learning and fine-tuning, the initial **planning and programming** of complex movements are cortical functions. *Involved in maintaining equilibrium* - Maintaining equilibrium and balance is primarily a function of the **vestibulocerebellum** (flocculonodular lobe), which receives input from the vestibular system. - While the spinocerebellum indirectly influences balance by coordinating limb movements, its direct role is less pronounced than that of the vestibulocerebellum. *Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes* - This function is specific to the **vestibulocerebellum** and is crucial for adapting the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) to maintain visual stability during head movements. - The spinocerebellar tract's primary role is proprioception for limb coordination, not VOR adaptation.
Question 105: Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
- A. Glucagon
- B. Follicle stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen (Correct Answer)
- D. Luteinizing hormone
Explanation: ***Estrogen*** - **Estrogen** is a **steroid hormone** that mediates its action by binding to intracellular receptors, forming a complex that directly influences gene transcription. - Steroid hormones, due to their **lipophilicity**, can cross the cell membrane and do not typically rely on cell surface receptors or second messengers like cAMP. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** acts on a **G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)**, specifically a Gs-coupled receptor, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase. - This activation increases the intracellular concentration of **cAMP**, which then activates protein kinase A to mediate its effects, primarily on glucose metabolism. *Follicle stimulating hormone* - **FSH** binds to a **GPCR** on target cells, activating the Gs protein pathway. - This activation stimulates **adenylyl cyclase** and increases intracellular **cAMP** levels, which are critical for its role in gamete development. *Luteinizing hormone* - **LH**, like FSH, binds to a cell surface **GPCR** that activates the Gs protein. - This leads to the stimulation of **adenylyl cyclase** and an increase in **cAMP**, mediating its effects on steroidogenesis and ovulation.