NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: In Marfan's syndrome, Aortic aneurysm occurs most commonly in:

Ascending aorta. ***Ascending aorta*** - The **ascending aorta** is the most common site for aortic aneurysm and dissection in Marfan syndrome due to cystic medial degeneration weakening the vessel wall [1]. - This predisposition is linked to defects in the **fibrillin-1 gene (FBN1)**, severely impacting the structural integrity of the arterial media primarily in the ascending aorta [1]. *Descending aorta* - While possible, **descending aortic** involvement is less common than ascending aortic involvement in Marfan syndrome [2]. - Aneurysms here are more frequently associated with atherosclerosis or other connective tissue disorders. *Abdominal aorta* - **Abdominal aortic aneurysms** are relatively rare in Marfan syndrome and are more typically seen in older patients with atherosclerosis [3]. - The disease primarily affects the elastic tissue content, which is most abundant in the proximal aorta. *Arch of aorta* - Aortic arch aneurysms can occur, but they are still less frequent than those in the **ascending aorta** as the primary initial site of dilation and dissection in Marfan syndrome. - Arch involvement often represents an extension of a more proximal ascending aortic pathology.

Q: In which of the following conditions is hypomagnesemia not typically observed?

Diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus - While hypomagnesemia can occur in poorly controlled diabetes due to osmotic diuresis, it is not a typical or defining feature of the condition itself in the same way as other options. - Many individuals with controlled diabetes may have normal magnesium levels, and it's often associated with complications rather than the primary disease process. Diarrhea - Chronic or severe diarrhea leads to significant gastrointestinal losses of electrolytes, including magnesium. - This is a common cause of hypomagnesemia, as the body loses fluids and minerals before they can be absorbed. Gitelman syndrome - This is a renal tubular disorder characterized by a defect in the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule. - It leads to hypomagnesemia (due to increased renal excretion) and hypokalemia, along with metabolic alkalosis. Bartter syndrome - This syndrome involves a defect in the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. - It results in significant renal wasting of magnesium [1], leading to hypomagnesemia, along with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

Q: Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?

Dorsolumbar. ***94ed055d-c7da-4d18-a2fd-52720dfe8b6e*** - The **dorsolumbar (thoracolumbar)** region is the most common site of **spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)** [1] due to its high vascularity, facilitating hematogenous spread. - **Spinal tuberculosis** typically affects the vertebral bodies, leading to their destruction, kyphosis (angular deformity), and potentially neurological deficits [1]. *aebdfe6c-98dc-4073-892f-bb24d047bab4* - The **sacral** region can be affected by **tuberculosis**, but it is considerably less common than the thoracolumbar region. - Involvement of the sacrum is often associated with **direct extension** from adjacent structures, such as the sacroiliac joint, rather than primary vertebral involvement. *15c1feef-e3ca-496f-a180-127d52b77bfa* - **Cervical spine tuberculosis** is relatively rare, accounting for a small percentage of all spinal tuberculosis cases. - While possible, it presents with specific challenges due to the proximity of vital neurological and vascular structures. *d05d4d13-bb83-4f26-aa2d-c9c0203d299c* - The **lumbosacral region** (L5-S1) can be involved in **tuberculosis**, but it is less frequently affected than the thoracolumbar region. - While the lumbar spine is a common site, the entire lumbosacral region as a single entity is not the most common spot for spinal TB.

Q: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.

Q: What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

USG. ***Correct Answer: USG*** - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the most common and effective method for diagnosing an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It allows for visualization of a gestational sac outside the uterus or an adnexal mass. - In conjunction with **serum beta-hCG levels**, TVS helps to differentiate between an intrauterine pregnancy and an ectopic pregnancy, especially when hCG levels are above the discriminatory zone (typically 1500-2000 mIU/mL). - TVS has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting ectopic pregnancy and is **non-invasive**. *Incorrect: Endoscopy* - **Endoscopy** (such as laparoscopy) is a surgical procedure, primarily used for direct visualization and treatment of ectopic pregnancies, not for initial diagnosis. - It is *too invasive* for routine diagnostic purposes in an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. *Incorrect: UPT* - A **urine pregnancy test (UPT)** confirms pregnancy but *cannot determine the location* of the pregnancy. - A positive UPT only indicates the presence of **hCG**, which is elevated in both intrauterine and ectopic pregnancies. *Incorrect: Culdocentesis* - **Culdocentesis** involves aspirating fluid from the cul-de-sac and is used to detect the presence of *free blood* in the peritoneal cavity, indicating a **ruptured** ectopic pregnancy. - It is not useful for diagnosing an **unruptured ectopic pregnancy** and is largely replaced by ultrasound in modern practice.

Q: In pregnancy, plasma volume increase is maximum at what gestational age?

30 wks. ***30 wks*** - **Plasma volume** typically reaches its maximum expansion around **30-34 weeks of gestation**, increasing by approximately 40-50% compared to pre-pregnancy levels. - This increase is crucial for supporting the **fetoplacental unit**, enhancing nutrient delivery, and protecting against supine hypotension. *10 wks* - At **10 weeks**, the increase in plasma volume is still modest, with significant expansion primarily occurring in the **second trimester**. - Most of the rapid expansion begins after the **first trimester**, around the 12-week mark. *20 wks* - While plasma volume is significantly increasing by **20 weeks**, it has not yet reached its peak. - The continuous expansion continues through the **third trimester** before stabilizing. *25 wks* - At **25 weeks**, plasma volume is substantially elevated, but the maximum expansion is usually observed a few weeks later. - The peak is generally in the **early third trimester**, around 30-34 weeks.

Q: A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?

Asherman's syndrome. ***Asherman's syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by the formation of **intrauterine adhesions** or scar tissue following uterine trauma, often from repeated **Dilation and Curettage (D&C)** procedures. - The adhesions can prevent the normal growth and shedding of the **endometrial lining**, leading to **secondary amenorrhea** and infertility. *Hypothyroidism* - While hypothyroidism can cause menstrual irregularities, including **amenorrhea**, it would not typically be linked to a history of **repeated D&C procedures**. - The mechanism involves **hormonal imbalances** (e.g., elevated **TRH leading to elevated prolactin**), not scarring of the uterus. *Kallman syndrome* - This is a rare genetic condition causing **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism** and **anosmia** (loss of smell), leading to **primary amenorrhea**. - It does not involve uterine scarring and is not associated with D&C procedures or **secondary amenorrhea**. *Sheehan's syndrome* - Sheehan's syndrome is **postpartum hypopituitarism** caused by **ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland** after severe hemorrhage during or after childbirth. - It would present with symptoms like **lactation failure** and could cause **secondary amenorrhea**, but it is not related to repeated D&C procedures.

Q: Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?

Anterior talofibular ligament. ***Anterior talofibular ligament*** - The **anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)** is the **most frequently injured ligament** in ankle sprains because it is the weakest and most commonly stretched during **inversion injuries**. - Its position makes it vulnerable during movements where the foot rolls inward, a common mechanism for ankle sprains. *Calcaneofibular ligament* - The **calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)** is stronger than the ATFL and is typically injured with more severe inversion forces, often in conjunction with ATFL rupture. - While it plays a crucial role in ankle stability, it is not the *most* commonly injured ligament. *Posterior talofibular ligament* - The **posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)** is the strongest of the lateral ankle ligaments and is rarely injured in isolated ankle sprains. - Its injury usually signifies a **severe ankle sprain** with significant talar displacement or dislocation. *Spring ligament* - The **spring ligament**, also known as the **plantar calcaneonavicular ligament**, is located on the medial side of the foot and supports the medial longitudinal arch. - It is not directly involved in typical ankle sprains, which primarily affect the lateral collateral ligaments.

Q: An XX baby presenting with male genitalia (penis and scrotum) is likely due to which of the following conditions?

High level of testosterone in maternal blood. ***High level of testosterone in maternal blood*** - An **XX baby** (genetically female) presenting with **fully masculinized external genitalia** (penis and scrotum) indicates significant **androgen exposure** during the critical period of sexual differentiation (8-12 weeks of gestation). - While the most common cause is **congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)** due to fetal androgen excess, **maternal sources of androgens** can also cause complete masculinization. - Maternal causes include **virilizing tumors** (e.g., luteoma of pregnancy, Krukenberg tumor, arrhenoblastoma), **exogenous androgen administration**, or **maternal CAH**. - High sustained maternal testosterone crosses the placenta and causes **virilization of female fetus**, which can range from clitoromegaly to complete male phenotype. - This is the **only medically correct option** among the choices given, though CAH (not listed) would be the most common cause overall. *Klinefelter syndrome* - **47, XXY karyotype** - genetically male due to presence of Y chromosome with SRY gene. - Presents as phenotypic male, not relevant to an **XX individual**. - Features include hypogonadism, infertility, tall stature, and gynecomastia. *Turner syndrome* - **45, X karyotype** - monosomy X, genetically and phenotypically female. - Presents with **female external genitalia**, streak gonads, short stature, webbed neck. - Cannot explain masculinized genitalia in any scenario. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **high level of testosterone in maternal blood** is a documented cause of XX virilization with male phenotype, though less common than fetal CAH.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?

Breast self examination. ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.

Question 1

In Marfan's syndrome, Aortic aneurysm occurs most commonly in:

Accepted Answer

Ascending aorta

Answer

Descending aorta

Answer

Abdominal aorta

Answer

Arch of aorta

Question 2

In which of the following conditions is hypomagnesemia not typically observed?

Accepted Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Diarrhea

Answer

Gitelman syndrome

Answer

Bartter syndrome

Question 3

Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?

Accepted Answer

Dorsolumbar

Answer

Sacral

Answer

Lumbosacral

Answer

Cervical

Question 4

Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta praevia

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Question 5

What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

USG

Answer

Endoscopy

Answer

UPT

Answer

Culdocentesis

Question 6

In pregnancy, plasma volume increase is maximum at what gestational age?

Accepted Answer

30 wks

Answer

10 wks

Answer

20 wks

Answer

25 wks

Question 7

A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Asherman's syndrome

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Kallman syndrome

Answer

Sheehan's syndrome

Question 8

Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?

Accepted Answer

Anterior talofibular ligament

Answer

Calcaneofibular ligament

Answer

Posterior talofibular ligament

Answer

Spring ligament

Question 9

An XX baby presenting with male genitalia (penis and scrotum) is likely due to which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

High level of testosterone in maternal blood

Answer

Turner syndrome

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Klinefelter syndrome

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?

Accepted Answer

Breast self examination

Answer

USG/ mammography

Answer

Clinical examination

Answer

FNAC/ trucut biopsy

NEET-PG 2012

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Surgery