Dermatology
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a feature of atopic dermatitis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Which of the following is NOT a feature of atopic dermatitis?
- A. Dennie-Morgan fold
- B. Darier’s Sign (Correct Answer)
- C. Hyperlinearity of palms
- D. Hertoghe’s sign
Explanation: ***Darier's Sign*** - **Darier's sign** is characteristic of **urticaria pigmentosa** (cutaneous mastocytosis), where rubbing a skin lesion causes the formation of an urticarial wheal due to mast cell degranulation - It is **not associated** with the pathogenesis or clinical presentation of **atopic dermatitis** *Dennie-Morgan fold* - **Dennie-Morgan folds** are extra folds or lines in the skin just below the lower eyelids - They are a common clinical sign observed in patients with **atopic dermatitis**, often linked to chronic inflammation and allergic reactions affecting the skin around the eyes *Hertoghe's sign* - **Hertoghe's sign** refers to the thinning or absence of the lateral third of the eyebrows - This sign is often seen in individuals with **atopic dermatitis**, as well as in other conditions like hypothyroidism *Hyperlinearity of palms* - **Hyperlinearity of palms** refers to the exaggerated creases and lines on the palms of the hands - This is a common **stigmata of atopy** and is frequently observed in patients with **atopic dermatitis**, reflecting the underlying predisposition to skin dryness and altered epidermal barrier function
Obstetrics and Gynecology
9 questionsCaput succedaneum indicates that the fetus was alive until which point?
What is the treatment of choice for Bartholin's cyst?
Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
Which of the following statements about Asherman's syndrome is true?
What is the investigation of choice in postmenopausal bleeding?
Which IUD is preferred for menorrhagia?
What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?
Vaginal pH before puberty is?
Which fetal presentation is the rarest?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Caput succedaneum indicates that the fetus was alive until which point?
- A. Immediately after birth (Correct Answer)
- B. Till 2-3 days after birth
- C. 2-3 weeks after birth
- D. 2-3 months after birth
Explanation: ***Immediately after birth*** - **Caput succedaneum** is a benign condition characterized by a **diffuse, edematous swelling** of the fetal scalp, crossing suture lines. - It results from pressure on the fetal head during vertex delivery, causing **extravasation of fluid** into the subcutaneous tissue, indicating the fetus was alive and circulating blood until birth. *Till 2-3 days after birth* - This option is incorrect because **caput succedaneum** is a direct consequence of the **birthing process** itself, forming during labor and delivery. - The presence of this scalp swelling signifies that the baby was alive and experienced the forces of birth, not that it survived for several days afterward. *2-3 weeks after birth* - This option is incorrect as **caput succedaneum** typically resolves within a few days of birth. - Its presence is a temporary finding related to the immediate perinatal period and does not indicate survival for several weeks. *2-3 months after birth* - This option is incorrect because **caput succedaneum** is a transient condition appearing at birth and usually disappearing within a few days. - It has no implication for the baby's survival beyond the immediate postnatal period, let alone for several months.
Question 1012: What is the treatment of choice for Bartholin's cyst?
- A. Excision
- B. Antibiotic therapy
- C. Marsupialization (Correct Answer)
- D. Cyst drainage
Explanation: ***Marsupialization*** - This procedure involves incising the cyst, draining its contents, and then everting and suturing the edges of the cyst wall to the surrounding skin, creating a permanent-draining pouch. - **Marsupialization** is the treatment of choice because it prevents recurrence by allowing continuous drainage of mucus, unlike simple incision and drainage. *Excision* - Complete surgical excision of the Bartholin's gland or cyst is a more invasive procedure and is typically reserved for cases of **recurrent cysts** after marsupialization or suspected malignancy. - It carries a higher risk of bleeding and infection compared to marsupialization, and can lead to **vaginal dryness** due to loss of glandular secretions. *Antibiotic therapy* - Antibiotics are primarily used if the Bartholin's gland becomes **infected**, leading to an **abscess**, or if there is surrounding cellulitis. - They do not address the underlying blockage of the duct and will not resolve a Bartholin's cyst, which is a collection of mucus due to duct obstruction. *Cyst drainage* - Simple incision and drainage (I&D) provides temporary relief by emptying the cyst contents but has a **high recurrence rate** because the duct often re-occludes. - While it may be used as an initial temporizing measure, it is not the definitive treatment for preventing future episodes of Bartholin's cysts.
Question 1013: Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
- A. Ca 125 level
- B. Ultrasound
- C. MRI
- D. Laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Laparoscopy*** - **Laparoscopy** allows for direct visualization of endometrial implants and enables **biopsy confirmation**, making it the gold standard. - This minimally invasive surgical procedure is crucial for diagnosing, staging, and often treating endometriosis simultaneously. *Ca 125 level* - **CA-125** is a serum marker that can be elevated in endometriosis, but it is **not specific** and can be raised in other conditions like ovarian cancer or physiologic states. - It is primarily used for monitoring treatment response or recurrence, rather than as a primary diagnostic tool. *Ultrasound* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** can identify endometriomas (chocolate cysts) and deep infiltrating endometriosis, but it cannot reliably visualize small peritoneal implants. - While it's a good initial imaging modality, its sensitivity for diagnosing all forms of endometriosis is **limited**. *MRI* - **MRI** offers better soft tissue contrast than ultrasound and can identify deep infiltrating endometriosis and some peritoneal implants, especially those involving the bowel or bladder. - However, MRI is **more expensive** and less accessible, and it still cannot definitively rule out all small, superficial endometrial lesions without direct visualization.
Question 1014: Which of the following statements about Asherman's syndrome is true?
- A. May be secondary to TB
- B. Progesterone challenge test is positive
- C. Characterized by intrauterine adhesions (Correct Answer)
- D. Not associated with menstrual irregularities
Explanation: ***Characterized by intrauterine adhesions*** - **Asherman's syndrome** is fundamentally defined by the presence of **intrauterine adhesions** or scarring of the uterine cavity. - These adhesions develop following trauma to the basal layer of the endometrium, often from gynecological procedures like **dilation and curettage (D&C)**. - This is the **pathognomonic feature** that defines the syndrome. *Progesterone challenge test is positive* - The **progesterone challenge test** assesses the presence of an intact endometrium and adequate estrogen priming. - In Asherman's syndrome, due to the scarred endometrium, the response to progesterone is typically **absent or minimal**, leading to a **negative** result. - A negative progesterone challenge test indicates outflow obstruction or endometrial non-responsiveness. *May be secondary to TB* - While **genital tuberculosis** can cause intrauterine adhesions and is a recognized etiology, it represents a **small minority** of cases. - The primary etiology of Asherman's syndrome is usually **iatrogenic**, following uterine instrumentation such as D&C, particularly post-partum or post-abortion. - TB-related adhesions may have additional features like caseating granulomas. *Not associated with menstrual irregularities* - This is **false** - Asherman's syndrome is classically associated with **menstrual irregularities**. - Common presentations include **hypomenorrhea** (scanty periods), **amenorrhea** (absent periods), or oligomenorrhea. - These menstrual changes result from the reduced functional endometrium available for cyclical shedding due to intrauterine adhesions.
Question 1015: What is the investigation of choice in postmenopausal bleeding?
- A. PAP smear
- B. Laparoscopy
- C. Fractional curettage
- D. Ultrasound (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ultrasound*** - An initial **transvaginal ultrasound** is the investigation of choice to assess the endometrial thickness in postmenopausal bleeding. An endometrial thickness of >4-5mm often warrants further investigation. - It helps in **ruling out endometrial pathologies** like hyperplasia, polyps, or carcinoma. *PAP smear* - A **PAP smear** is a screening test for cervical cancer, not typically used to investigate postmenopausal bleeding originating from the uterus. - While it can detect some endometrial cells, it is **not sensitive** or specific enough to diagnose the cause of postmenopausal bleeding. *Laparoscopy* - **Laparoscopy** is a surgical procedure used to visualize pelvic organs and is generally employed for diagnosing and treating conditions like endometriosis, ovarian cysts, or ectopic pregnancies. - It is **not the initial investigation** for postmenopausal bleeding and is too invasive for primary diagnosis unless other methods have failed or a specific pathology is suspected. *Fractional curettage* - **Fractional curettage** involves scraping the lining of the cervix and uterus to obtain tissue samples for histological examination. - While it can be diagnostic for endometrial pathology, it is typically performed **after an initial ultrasound** has identified increased endometrial thickness or other suspicious findings, and less commonly as a standalone initial investigation.
Question 1016: Which IUD is preferred for menorrhagia?
- A. NOVA T
- B. Cu IUD
- C. Mirena (Correct Answer)
- D. Gynefix
Explanation: ***Mirena*** - The **Mirena** IUD contains **levonorgestrel**, a progestin, which significantly reduces menstrual blood loss by causing endometrial atrophy. - It is FDA-approved for the treatment of **menorrhagia** and is highly effective in reducing heavy menstrual bleeding. *NOVA T* - **NOVA T** is a **copper IUD**, which can actually *increase* menstrual blood loss and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Copper IUDs work primarily by inducing a **local inflammatory reaction** in the uterus that is spermicidal and prevents fertilization. *Cu IUD* - Like NOVA T, **copper IUDs (Cu IUDs)** are known to exacerbate **heavy menstrual bleeding** and cramping. - They are used for contraception but are generally contraindicated in women with pre-existing menorrhagia. *Gynefix* - **Gynefix** is a frameless copper IUD designed to reduce the side effects of traditional T-shaped copper IUDs. - While it may cause less cramping than other copper IUDs, it still contains copper and can **increase menstrual flow**, making it a poor choice for menorrhagia.
Question 1017: What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?
- A. 4.0 (Correct Answer)
- B. 4.5
- C. 5
- D. >5
Explanation: ***4.0*** - The typical vaginal pH in a pregnant woman is **acidic**, generally ranging from 3.5 to 4.5, with **4.0 being the most commonly cited average value** during pregnancy. - This **acidic environment** is crucial for maintaining a healthy vaginal flora, primarily dominated by **Lactobacillus species**, which produce lactic acid from glycogen deposits in vaginal epithelium. - The increased estrogen levels during pregnancy promote glycogen deposition, supporting lactobacilli growth and maintaining this acidic pH. *4.5* - While 4.5 is **also within the normal range** (3.5-4.5) for pregnant women, it represents the **upper limit** of normal vaginal pH during pregnancy. - Although still physiologic, **4.0 is more commonly referenced** as the typical value in obstetric literature, making it the best answer for "typical" pH. - A pH consistently at 4.5 or trending upward may warrant monitoring, though it is not necessarily pathological. *5* - A pH of 5 is considered **elevated** and is typically associated with conditions like **bacterial vaginosis** (BV) or **trichomoniasis**, which increase the risk of preterm labor and other complications. - A pH of 5 in pregnancy would raise suspicion and warrant further investigation, as it indicates a **less acidic** environment and disruption of normal lactobacilli-dominated flora. - This elevated pH suggests loss of the protective acidic environment. *>5* - A pH greater than 5 is **abnormal** for a pregnant woman and strongly suggests the presence of a **vaginal infection**, such as bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, or aerobic vaginitis. - This **alkaline shift** favors the growth of pathogenic bacteria over beneficial lactobacilli, significantly increasing the risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes including preterm birth and chorioamnionitis. - Requires prompt evaluation and treatment.
Question 1018: Vaginal pH before puberty is?
- A. Approximately 6
- B. Approximately 4.5
- C. Approximately 5
- D. Neutral (around 7) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neutral (around 7)*** - Before puberty, the vagina lacks the influence of **estrogen**, which is essential for the colonization of **Lactobacillus** bacteria. - Without Lactobacillus, there is no significant production of lactic acid, resulting in a **neutral pH** environment. *Approximately 6* - A pH of approximately 6 is still slightly acidic but less so than a mature vagina. - This value is not typical for the prepubertal stage, which generally represents an environment without significant acidic production. *Approximately 4.5* - A pH of approximately 4.5 is characteristic of a **healthy, estrogenized adult vagina** where **Lactobacillus** bacteria produce lactic acid. - This acidic environment is crucial for protecting against pathogenic infections and is not found in prepubertal individuals. *Approximately 5* - A pH of approximately 5 is acidic, though less so than the optimal adult vaginal pH. - This value indicates some lactic acid production, which is minimal or absent before the onset of puberty.
Question 1019: Which fetal presentation is the rarest?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Breech
- C. Shoulder (Correct Answer)
- D. Face
Explanation: ***Shoulder*** - **Shoulder presentation** (also known as a **transverse lie**) occurs in approximately **0.3% of pregnancies** at term, making it the rarest presentation among the major fetal lie categories. - In this presentation, the fetal long axis is perpendicular to the maternal long axis, and the **shoulder** is typically the presenting part. - Vaginal delivery is not possible, and **cesarean section is mandatory**. *Cephalic* - **Cephalic presentation** is the most common presentation, occurring in about **95% of pregnancies**. - In this presentation, the fetal head is directed downwards towards the maternal pelvis. - This includes vertex, face, brow, and other head-first presentations. *Breech* - **Breech presentation** occurs when the fetal buttocks or feet are the presenting part, seen in about **3-4% of term pregnancies**. - While less common than cephalic, it is significantly more frequent than shoulder presentation. - Includes frank, complete, and footling breech variants. *Face* - **Face presentation** is a rare variant of cephalic presentation where the **fetal face** (chin/mentum) is the presenting part, occurring in about **0.2-0.3% of deliveries**. - The fetal head is hyperextended, with the occiput against the fetal back. - While rare, it is still slightly more common than shoulder presentation in some studies.