NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: A pregnant woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be:

Propylthiouracil oral. ***Propylthiouracil oral*** - **Propylthiouracil (PTU)** is the preferred antithyroid drug during the **first trimester** of pregnancy due to a lower risk of teratogenicity compared to methimazole/carbimazole [1]. - It works by inhibiting both the synthesis of thyroid hormones and the peripheral conversion of **T4 to T3**. *Radioiodine therapy* - **Radioactive iodine** is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy as it can cross the placenta and cause **fetal hypothyroidism or athyreosis**. - It leads to permanent destruction of the thyroid gland and is not suitable for a temporary condition in a pregnant woman. *Total thyroidectomy* - While thyroidectomy can be considered for Graves' disease in pregnancy, it is generally reserved for cases where antithyroid drugs are not tolerated or ineffective, or for very large goiters causing compressive symptoms. - It carries risks associated with **surgery and anesthesia** during pregnancy, and requires **lifelong thyroid hormone replacement**. *Carbimazole parenteral* - **Carbimazole** (which is metabolized to methimazole) is generally avoided in the **first trimester** due to an increased risk of teratogenicity, particularly **aplasia cutis**, omphalocele, and choanal atresia [1]. - While it can be used in the second and third trimesters, **PTU is preferred in the first trimester**, and carbimazole is not typically administered parenterally.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of primary Sjogren's syndrome?

Enlargement of salivary glands. ***Enlargement of salivary glands*** - **Sjögren's syndrome** is characterized by chronic inflammation of **exocrine glands**, leading to swelling and dysfunction, most notably in the **parotid** and **submandibular glands**. - This glandular enlargement often presents as recurrent or persistent **bilateral swelling** of the major salivary glands. *Can occur in children* - While possible, Sjögren's syndrome is predominantly a disease of **adults**, with incidence peaking in individuals between **40 and 60 years old**. - **Juvenile Sjögren's syndrome** is rare and typically presents with more variable symptoms, making it less of a characteristic feature of the primary disease in the general population. *Increased complement C4 is associated with thymoma* - **Increased complement C4** levels are generally not associated with Sjögren's syndrome; instead, **hypocomplementemia** (low C4) can be seen in some patients, indicating immune complex activity. - **Thymoma** is primarily linked to **myasthenia gravis** and other paraneoplastic syndromes, not a direct or characteristic association with Sjögren's syndrome or C4 levels in this context. *Can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis* - Sjögren's syndrome can be classified as **primary** (occurring alone) or **secondary** (occurring in conjunction with another autoimmune disease). - Its association with **rheumatoid arthritis** defines **secondary Sjögren's syndrome**, meaning it's not a characteristic feature of the *primary* form of the disease itself.

Q: What is the primary use of prophylactic methergin?

To stop excess bleeding from uterus. ***To stop excess bleeding from uterus*** - **Methergin (Methylergonovine)** is an **ergot alkaloid** that causes strong contractions of the **uterus**. - Its primary prophylactic use is to **prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage** by contracting the uterus and compressing blood vessels. *Induction of labour* - **Methergin** is generally **contraindicated for labor induction** as its potent, sustained contractions can cause **hypertonic uterine dysfunction** and fetal distress. - **Oxytocin** is the preferred agent for **labor induction** due to its more physiological contraction pattern. *Induction of abortion* - While methergin can cause uterine contractions, it is **not the primary agent for abortion induction**. - **Prostaglandins (e.g., misoprostol)** and other pharmacological agents are typically used in combination for **medical abortion**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **stopping excess uterine bleeding** is indeed a primary use of prophylactic methergin, particularly in the postpartum period. - The other options describe situations where methergin is either not indicated or is a secondary/contraindicated choice.

Q: How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?

Cobb's method. ***Cobb's method*** - This is the **standard radiographic measurement** used to assess the severity of spinal curvature in scoliosis. - It involves drawing lines along the **most tilted vertebrae** at the ends of the curve and measuring the angle formed by their intersection. *Hamburger method* - This is not a recognized method for calculating the degree of deformity in scoliosis. - There is **no established medical or orthopedic technique** bearing this name for scoliosis assessment. *Haldane method* - This method is primarily used in **biochemistry** to describe **enzyme kinetics** and is unrelated to scoliosis measurement. - It describes the relationship between reaction rates and reactant concentrations in biological systems. *Milwaukee method* - The **Milwaukee brace** is a historical type of orthotic device used to treat scoliosis, but it is not a method for calculating the degree of deformity. - While it is associated with scoliosis treatment, it does not involve the measurement of the curve itself.

Q: Which drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?

Hydroxyurea. ***Hydroxyurea*** - **Hydroxyurea** is the primary drug used to treat sickle cell anemia by promoting **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** production - It is a **ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor** that increases HbF levels, which reduces sickling of red blood cells - Clinical benefits include reduced frequency of **vaso-occlusive crises**, decreased need for transfusions, and improved survival - Mechanism: Increases **HbF** production, which dilutes the abnormal **HbS** and prevents polymerization *Trypsin* - **Trypsin** is a **proteolytic enzyme** involved in protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract - It has no role in the treatment of **sickle cell anemia** or in promoting **fetal hemoglobin** production *L-glutamine* - **L-glutamine** is an **amino acid** (not a drug that promotes HbF) approved for sickle cell disease - Its mechanism involves reducing **oxidative stress** by increasing NAD+ levels and improving red blood cell energy metabolism - It reduces complications but does not primarily work by increasing **fetal hemoglobin** production *Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase* - **G6PD** is an **enzyme** in the **pentose phosphate pathway**, not a therapeutic agent - **G6PD deficiency** causes hemolytic anemia but is unrelated to sickle cell disease treatment or fetal hemoglobin production

Q: Which of the following medications is not typically used in the treatment of malignant malaria?

Quinolone. ***Quinolone*** - **Quinolone** antibiotics, while broad-spectrum, are not typically used as primary antimalarial agents due to limited efficacy against *Plasmodium falciparum* and potential for resistance. - Their use in malaria treatment is generally restricted to specific co-infections rather than direct antimalarial efficacy. *Quinine* - **Quinine** has been a cornerstone of severe malaria treatment for many years, especially in regions with limited access to newer artemisinin derivatives. - It works by interfering with the parasite's ability to detoxify heme, thus killing the parasites. *Doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is an effective antimalarial, particularly as a prophylactic agent and in combination therapy for uncomplicated malaria or as an alternative for severe malaria when other agents are contraindicated. - It inhibits **protein synthesis** in the parasite. *Artesunate* - **Artesunate** is the recommended first-line treatment for severe malaria due to its rapid action and potent parasiticidal effects. - It is an **artemisinin derivative** that produces free radicals toxic to the parasite.

Q: Drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii in pregnancy?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SMZ/TMP). ***Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SMZ/TMP)*** - Despite being a **folate antagonist**, SMZ/TMP is considered safe and the **drug of choice** for treating **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)** in pregnant women, particularly as the benefits outweigh the risks. - It is recommended to supplement with **folic acid** during treatment to mitigate potential teratogenic risks, although these risks are generally low. *Primaquine* - **Primaquine** is primarily used for the treatment of **Plasmodium vivax** and **Plasmodium ovale malaria**, specifically targeting hypnozoites in the liver. - It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of **hemolytic anemia** in the fetus, especially if the fetus has **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency**. *Dapsone* - **Dapsone** is used in the treatment of **leprosy**, **dermatitis herpetiformis**, and as an alternative for **PJP prophylaxis** in HIV-positive patients. - While it can be used for PJP prophylaxis, its efficacy for **active PJP treatment** is lower than SMZ/TMP, and it carries risks of **hemolytic anemia** and **methemoglobinemia**, particularly in pregnancy. *Pentamidine* - **Pentamidine** is an alternative treatment for **PJP**, especially in patients who cannot tolerate SMZ/TMP. - It is typically reserved for **severe cases** or as a second-line agent due to its potential for **significant toxicity**, including hypotension, nephrotoxicity, and hypoglycemia, which can be particularly concerning in pregnancy.

Q: Which local anesthetic is known for its vasoconstrictive properties?

Cocaine. ***Cocaine*** - Cocaine is unique among local anesthetics for its inherent **sympathomimetic** properties, leading to **vasoconstriction**. - This vasoconstriction is due to its ability to block the reuptake of **norepinephrine** and other catecholamines at adrenergic nerve terminals. *Procaine* - Procaine is an **ester-type** local anesthetic that typically causes **vasodilation**, which can lead to rapid systemic absorption and a shorter duration of action. - It does not possess any inherent vasoconstrictive properties. *Lidocaine* - Lidocaine, an **amide-type** local anesthetic, generally causes **vasodilation** at clinical concentrations. - Due to this vasodilatory effect, **epinephrine** is often added to lidocaine preparations to prolong its action and reduce systemic absorption. *Chlorprocaine* - Chlorprocaine is another **ester-type** local anesthetic known for its rapid onset and short duration of action. - It primarily causes **vasodilation**, similar to procaine, and has no intrinsic vasoconstrictive effects.

Q: Which of the following is a recognized type of anxiety disorder?

Panic Disorder. ***Panic Disorder*** - **Panic disorder** is a recognized **anxiety disorder** characterized by recurrent unexpected **panic attacks** - sudden episodes of intense fear accompanied by physical symptoms like heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness, and trembling. - It involves persistent worry about having more attacks (anticipatory anxiety) and maladaptive behavioral changes to avoid situations where attacks might occur. - Classified under **Anxiety Disorders** in DSM-5 and ICD-11. *Major Depressive Disorder* - **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)** is a **mood disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by persistent depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia), changes in appetite/sleep, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness, and potential suicidal ideation. - Classified under **Depressive Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders, though anxiety symptoms may co-occur. *Bipolar Disorder* - **Bipolar disorder** is a **mood disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by significant mood swings including episodes of mania/hypomania (elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased energy) and depression. - Classified under **Bipolar and Related Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders. *Schizophrenia* - **Schizophrenia** is a **psychotic disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by disturbances in thought, perception, emotions, and behavior, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and negative symptoms. - Classified under **Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders.

Q: Which condition is commonly associated with complications arising from phimosis?

Inflammation of the glans and foreskin. ***Inflammation of the glans and foreskin*** - **Phimosis** (the inability to retract the foreskin) can lead to poor hygiene under the foreskin, creating an environment for bacterial or fungal growth. - This often results in **balanitis** (inflammation of the glans) or **balanoposthitis** (inflammation of both the glans and foreskin) due to retained secretions and microorganisms. *Inability to retract the foreskin* - This is the **definition** of phimosis, not a complication arising from it. - While it is the primary characteristic, it directly describes the condition itself rather than a subsequent problem. *Urethral opening on the underside of the penis* - This condition is known as **hypospadias**, a congenital anomaly of the urethra. - Hypospadias is a developmental issue and is unrelated to phimosis or its complications. *Narrowing of the urethral opening* - This condition is called **meatal stenosis** and refers to the narrowing of the external opening of the urethra. - While it can cause urinary symptoms, it is a distinct condition and not a direct complication of phimosis, although severe phimosis might indirectly impact urinary hygiene.

Question 1

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be:

Accepted Answer

Propylthiouracil oral

Answer

Radioiodine therapy

Answer

Total thyroidectomy

Answer

Carbimazole parenteral

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of primary Sjogren's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Enlargement of salivary glands

Answer

Can occur in children

Answer

Increased complement C4 is associated with thymoma

Answer

Can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis

Question 3

What is the primary use of prophylactic methergin?

Accepted Answer

To stop excess bleeding from uterus

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Induction of labour

Answer

Induction of abortion

Question 4

How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?

Accepted Answer

Cobb's method

Answer

Hamburger method

Answer

Haldane method

Answer

Milwaukee method

Question 5

Which drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?

Accepted Answer

Hydroxyurea

Answer

Trypsin

Answer

L-glutamine

Answer

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 6

Which of the following medications is not typically used in the treatment of malignant malaria?

Accepted Answer

Quinolone

Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Artesunate

Answer

Quinine

Question 7

Drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SMZ/TMP)

Answer

Primaquine

Answer

Dapsone

Answer

Pentamidine

Question 8

Which local anesthetic is known for its vasoconstrictive properties?

Accepted Answer

Cocaine

Answer

Lidocaine

Answer

Chlorprocaine

Answer

Procaine

Question 9

Which of the following is a recognized type of anxiety disorder?

Accepted Answer

Panic Disorder

Answer

Bipolar Disorder

Answer

Major Depressive Disorder

Answer

Schizophrenia

Question 10

Which condition is commonly associated with complications arising from phimosis?

Accepted Answer

Inflammation of the glans and foreskin

Answer

Inability to retract the foreskin

Answer

Urethral opening on the underside of the penis

Answer

Narrowing of the urethral opening

NEET-PG 2012

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pharmacology

Psychiatry

Surgery