Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol consumption and may require supplementation in alcohol use disorders?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol consumption and may require supplementation in alcohol use disorders?
- A. Pyridoxine
- B. Thiamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Riboflavin
- D. Niacin
Explanation: ***Thiamine*** - **Thiamine** (Vitamin B1) deficiency is extremely common in chronic alcoholics due to **poor dietary intake**, impaired absorption, and increased excretion. - Deficiency can lead to serious neurological complications like **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**, characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. *Pyridoxine* - **Pyridoxine** (Vitamin B6) deficiency can occur in alcoholics, but it is less common and less clinically significant than thiamine deficiency. - While it can manifest as peripheral neuropathy or **sideroblastic anemia**, it is not the most common or critical deficiency in this population. *Riboflavin* - **Riboflavin** (Vitamin B2) deficiency can also be seen in chronic alcoholics due to poor nutrition. - Symptoms like **cheilosis** and **angular stomatitis** are mild compared to the severe neurological consequences of thiamine deficiency. *Niacin* - **Niacin** (Vitamin B3) deficiency, known as **pellagra**, is rare in developed countries but can occur in severe malnutrition, including in some alcoholics. - Pellagra presents with the "3 Ds": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia**, but it is generally less prevalent than thiamine deficiency in alcohol use disorders.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following is associated with macrosomia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?
- A. None of the options
- B. Gestational diabetes mellitus (Correct Answer)
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Maternal anemia
Explanation: ***Gestational diabetes mellitus*** - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** is a common cause of macrosomia because high maternal glucose levels lead to increased fetal insulin production, which promotes growth and fat deposition. - The **hyperglycemic environment** in GDM stimulates fetal overgrowth, resulting in larger-than-average babies. *Hypothyroidism* - **Maternal hypothyroidism** is typically associated with **fetal growth restriction** and lower birth weight, not macrosomia. - Undiagnosed or poorly controlled hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as **preterm labor** and **preeclampsia**, but not increased fetal size. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gestational diabetes mellitus** is directly associated with macrosomia. - There is a clear and well-documented link between maternal hyperglycemia and increased fetal growth. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia**, especially severe anemia, is generally associated with an **increased risk of fetal growth restriction** and **low birth weight**. - Anemia limits oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus, thereby hindering optimal growth.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsProximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
- A. One part
- B. Two part
- C. Three part
- D. Four part (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.
Pediatrics
2 questionsUpper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:
What is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:
- A. 1.2:1
- B. 1.3:1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1.4:1
- D. 1.6:1
Explanation: ***1.3:1*** - At birth, the upper segment to lower segment ratio is around **1.7:1**, indicating proportionally longer trunks. - By the age of **3 years**, this ratio typically decreases to approximately **1.3:1** as the lower limbs grow more rapidly. *1.2:1* - This ratio is typically observed in **older children** or young adults, as lower limb growth catches up further. - A ratio of 1.2:1 would suggest more **proportional body segments** than expected for a 3-year-old child. *1.4:1* - This ratio is closer to that of a **younger infant** or toddler, as the lower segments are still relatively shorter. - A 3-year-old would generally have experienced more **lower limb growth**, reducing this ratio further. *1.6:1* - This ratio is characteristic of a **newborn or very young infant**, where the upper body and head are significantly larger relative to the legs. - It would be **abnormal** for a 3-year-old to still have such a high ratio, indicating a disproportional growth pattern.
Question 992: What is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?
- A. 1-5 ml/min (Correct Answer)
- B. 10-15 ml/min
- C. 15-20 ml/min
- D. 5-10 ml/min
Explanation: ***1-5 ml/min*** - The recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates is **1-5 ml/min** to prevent **circulatory overload** and other complications. - Slower rates are crucial for neonates due to their limited cardiovascular reserves and smaller blood volume. *5-10 ml/min* - This rate is generally **too fast** for routine neonatal blood transfusions, increasing the risk of **fluid overload** and **cardiac strain**. - Rapid administration can lead to complications such as **necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)** or **respiratory distress**. *10-15 ml/min* - Administering blood at this rate in neonates is **contraindicated** due to the high risk of **cardiovascular compromise**. - It could quickly overwhelm the neonate's circulatory system, leading to severe adverse events. *15-20 ml/min* - This rate is significantly **too rapid** for any neonatal blood transfusion and would almost certainly result in **severe volume overload** and potential cardiac arrest. - Such high rates are only rarely considered in extreme emergency situations, like massive hemorrhage with specific considerations and monitoring.
Pharmacology
1 questionsMost commonly abused opioid -
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Most commonly abused opioid -
- A. Morphine
- B. Diacetylmorphine (Correct Answer)
- C. Oxycodone
- D. Buprenorphine
Explanation: ***Diacetylmorphine*** - **Diacetylmorphine**, commonly known as **heroin**, is synthetically derived from **morphine** but is significantly more potent and lipid-soluble, allowing it to cross the **blood-brain barrier** rapidly [1, 3]. - Its rapid onset of action and intense euphoric effects contribute to its high potential for **abuse** and addiction, making it one of the most commonly abused opioids globally, particularly through intravenous injection [1]. *Morphine* - While **morphine** is a potent opioid and has a high potential for abuse, it is often prescribed in clinical settings for severe pain. - Its slower onset and less intense "rush" compared to **heroin** make it less frequently the **primary opioid of abuse** in illicit street drug markets [1]. *Oxycodone* - **Oxycodone** is a highly abused prescription opioid, especially in the form of controlled-release formulations like **OxyContin**, but its abuse is primarily linked to prescription drug diversion rather than being the most common illicitly manufactured opioid of abuse. - While it contributes significantly to the opioid crisis, **heroin** (diacetylmorphine) remains the most commonly abused opioid in the illicit market due to its widespread availability and potency [1]. *Buprenorphine* - **Buprenorphine** is a **partial opioid agonist** used in the treatment of opioid dependence (opioid replacement therapy) due to its ceiling effect on respiratory depression and ability to block the effects of other opioids. - Although it can be abused, particularly in combination with naloxone (Suboxone) via intravenous injection, its primary role is in **medication-assisted treatment**, making it less commonly abused as a standalone illicit opioid compared to **heroin**.
Psychiatry
2 questionsWhat term describes repetitive, intrusive thoughts that cause significant distress or anxiety?
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: What term describes repetitive, intrusive thoughts that cause significant distress or anxiety?
- A. Phobia
- B. Obsession (Correct Answer)
- C. Compulsion
- D. Anxiety
Explanation: ***Obsession*** - An **obsession** is defined by the presence of **recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images** that are experienced as intrusive and unwanted, causing significant anxiety or distress. - These thoughts are often recognized as products of one's own mind, and individuals typically attempt to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them. *Phobia* - A **phobia** is an intense, irrational fear of a specific object or situation that poses little or no actual danger. - Unlike obsessions, phobias are typically related to external stimuli and do not primarily involve intrusive thoughts. *Compulsion* - A **compulsion** is a repetitive behavior (e.g., hand washing, checking) or mental act (e.g., praying, counting) that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession. - Compulsions are often aimed at preventing or reducing anxiety or distress, or preventing some dreaded event or situation. *Anxiety* - **Anxiety** is a general term for a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease, typically about an event or something with an uncertain outcome. - While obsessions cause anxiety, "anxiety" itself is a broad emotional state, not specifically the intrusive thoughts described.
Question 992: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Diazepam
- D. Lithium carbonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.
Radiology
1 questionsRim sign in IVP is seen in
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Rim sign in IVP is seen in
- A. Hydronephrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic Pyelonephritis
- C. Renal Cell Carcinoma
- D. Polycystic Kidney Disease
Explanation: ***Hydronephrosis*** - The **rim sign** in IVP (Intravenous Pyelography) refers to the opacification of the renal parenchyma surrounding a dilated pelvicalyceal system, forming a "rim" of contrast. - This sign is characteristic of acute obstruction leading to **hydronephrosis**, where the contrast accumulates in the compressed renal tissue and then slowly excretes into the dilated collecting system, outlining it. *Chronic Pyelonephritis* - Characterized by **focal cortical thinning**, scarring, and clubbing of the calyces, not a rim sign. - The kidney may appear small and irregularly outlined on IVP due to **parenchymal loss**. *Renal Cell Carcinoma* - Often presents as a **mass lesion** that distorts the collecting system, but typically does not cause a rim sign. - May show vascularity on imaging and can cause direct invasion or displacement of renal structures. *Polycystic Kidney Disease* - Involves multiple **cysts** of varying sizes throughout both kidneys, leading to significant renal enlargement and distortion of the collecting system. - The appearance is typically described as a "Swiss cheese" or "moth-eaten" pattern due to the numerous cysts, not a rim sign.
Surgery
1 questionsIn Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: In Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the
- A. Congenital heart defects (Correct Answer)
- B. Anomalies of the urinary tract
- C. Anomalies of the skull
- D. Craniofacial anomalies
Explanation: ***Congenital heart defects*** - **Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)** is frequently associated with other congenital anomalies. - **Cardiac malformations** are the most common co-occurring defects, affecting a significant proportion of CDH patients. *Anomalies of the urinary tract* - While **urogenital anomalies** can occur with CDH, they are less prevalent than congenital heart defects. - These typically include conditions like **renal agenesis** or **hydronephrosis**. *Anomalies of the skull* - **Skull anomalies** are not a primary or common association with congenital diaphragmatic hernia. - Genetic syndromes associated with both CDH and skull anomalies are relatively rare. *Craniofacial anomalies* - **Craniofacial anomalies**, such as **cleft lip/palate**, can occur with CDH but are less common than cardiac anomalies. - These are often seen within the context of specific genetic syndromes.