NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics Practice Questions

Q: How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?

Cobb's method. ***Cobb's method*** - This is the **standard radiographic measurement** used to assess the severity of spinal curvature in scoliosis. - It involves drawing lines along the **most tilted vertebrae** at the ends of the curve and measuring the angle formed by their intersection. *Hamburger method* - This is not a recognized method for calculating the degree of deformity in scoliosis. - There is **no established medical or orthopedic technique** bearing this name for scoliosis assessment. *Haldane method* - This method is primarily used in **biochemistry** to describe **enzyme kinetics** and is unrelated to scoliosis measurement. - It describes the relationship between reaction rates and reactant concentrations in biological systems. *Milwaukee method* - The **Milwaukee brace** is a historical type of orthotic device used to treat scoliosis, but it is not a method for calculating the degree of deformity. - While it is associated with scoliosis treatment, it does not involve the measurement of the curve itself.

Q: What is the primary pathology associated with Congenital Dislocation of the Hip (CDH)?

Shallow acetabulum. ***Shallow acetabulum*** - A **shallow or dysplastic acetabulum** is the primary pathological feature in CDH, leading to an unstable or dislocated femoral head. - This anatomical abnormality prevents the femoral head from seating properly, causing **instability** and potential **dislocation**. *Large head of femur* - While femoral head abnormalities can occur, a **disproportionately large femoral head** is not the primary or most common pathological feature causing CDH. - The issue primarily lies with the **acetabular socket** rather than the size of the femoral head itself. *Excessive retroversion* - **Femoral retroversion** (backward twisting of the femoral neck relative to the femoral condyles) can be a contributing factor or an associated finding, but it is not the primary anatomical defect. - The principal pathology is the **inadequate containment** of the femoral head by a poorly formed acetabulum. *Coxa vara deformity* - **Coxa vara** is a deformity where the angle between the head and shaft of the femur is decreased. - While it can be associated with or contribute to hip instability in some conditions, it is not the primary or defining pathological feature of CDH.

Q: In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?

Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints. ***Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints*** - In neglected cases of **clubfoot (CTEV)**, a **triple arthrodesis** is performed to correct the deformity. - This procedure involves the fusion of the **subtalar (talocalcaneal)**, **talonavicular**, and **calcaneocuboid joints** to provide a stable, plantigrade foot. *Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - The **tibiotalar joint (ankle joint)** is generally preserved in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to maintain ankle motion. - Fusing the tibiotalar joint would significantly **reduce ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion**, leading to a stiff ankle. *None of the above joints* - This option is incorrect because the fusion of specific joints is a recognized surgical treatment for severe, neglected CTEV. - **Triple arthrodesis** is a well-established procedure for correcting rigid foot deformities. *Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - As mentioned, fusion of the **ankle joint (tibiotalar joint)** is generally avoided in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to preserve functional ankle motion. - The goal is to stabilize the foot while retaining as much articulation as possible in the ankle itself.

Q: What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?

To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications. ***To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications*** - Early stabilization of femur shaft fractures significantly **reduces the incidence of fat embolism syndrome (FES)**. Fat emboli released from the bone marrow can travel to the lungs and brain, causing severe respiratory distress and neurological deficits. - By stabilizing the fracture, the **release of fat globules is minimized**, thereby preventing FES and associated systemic complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). *To prevent significant blood loss.* - While femur fractures can cause significant blood loss, the primary reason for early stabilization is not solely to prevent it but to reduce complications. **Blood loss is a direct consequence**, but FES poses a greater immediate threat to life. - Furthermore, **blood loss can often be managed initially by other means**, such as fluid resuscitation and direct pressure, while FES requires prompt reduction of fracture movement. *To reduce pain and discomfort.* - Reducing pain and discomfort is an important benefit of stabilization, but it is **not the primary life-saving reason** for early intervention. Analgesics and proper splinting can also address pain. - The focus on early stabilization goes beyond symptomatic relief to actively prevent **potentially fatal systemic complications**. *To facilitate quicker healing.* - While stability is crucial for proper healing, **early stabilization primarily addresses acute, life-threatening complications** rather than long-term healing rates. Optimal healing depends on many factors, including blood supply and infection control, not solely on initial stabilization. - **Quicker healing is a secondary benefit**; the immediate priority is to prevent acute morbidity and mortality associated with the fracture.

Q: Treatment of choice for displaced fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female

Multiple screw fixation. ***Multiple screw fixation*** - For a **displaced femoral neck fracture** in a younger patient (40 years old), **internal fixation** with multiple screws is generally the preferred treatment to preserve the native **femoral head**. - This approach aims to achieve **anatomical reduction** and stable fixation, allowing for bone healing and a better long-term functional outcome in active individuals. *Bipolar hemiarthroplasty* - This procedure is typically reserved for older, less active patients with **displaced femoral neck fractures**, particularly those with pre-existing conditions that might limit their longevity or activity level. - While it replaces the femoral head, it does not preserve the native joint, which is a less desirable outcome in a 40-year-old. *THR* - **Total hip replacement** is usually considered for older patients, or younger patients with **pre-existing arthritis** or failed internal fixation, due to concerns about the prosthesis's longevity and potential future revisions. - In a 40-year-old, the goal is typically to preserve the native joint if possible, unless there are other complicating factors. *None of the options* - Internal fixation with multiple screws is a well-established and appropriate treatment for a displaced femoral neck fracture in a 40-year-old patient. - Therefore, one of the provided options is indeed the correct treatment choice for this specific scenario.

Q: Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?

Involucrum. ***Involucrum*** - **Cloacae** are openings or sinuses that develop in the **involucrum**, which is the new bone formation that surrounds a segment of necrotic bone (sequestrum) during osteomyelitis. - These openings act as channels for the discharge of **pus** and inflammatory debris from the infected bone to the external environment. *Sequestrum* - A **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding healthy bone due to osteomyelitis. - While central to the pathology, the cloacae are openings *through the involucrum* that encases the sequestrum, not in the sequestrum itself. *Normal bone* - **Normal bone** does not contain cloacae; these structures are a pathological feature indicative of chronic osteomyelitis. - Healthy bone remodels and resorbs normally, without the formation of channels for pus drainage. *Myositis* - **Myositis** is an inflammation of the **muscles**, not bone, and does not involve the formation of cloacae. - While it can be caused by infection, the pathological changes are localized to muscle tissue.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding supracondylar fractures of the humerus?

Extension type most common. **Extension type most common** - **Extension-type supracondylar fractures** account for the vast majority (about 95%) of all supracondylar humerus fractures. - This type typically results from a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow in extension, forcing the distal fragment posteriorly. *More common in adults* - **Supracondylar fractures of the humerus** are predominantly observed in children, especially between 5 and 10 years of age. - They are the **most common elbow fracture in children**, making this statement incorrect. *Flexion type is less common than extension type* - While flexion-type fractures do occur, they are significantly less common, representing only about 5% of all supracondylar fractures. - This type typically results from a direct blow to the posterior aspect of the elbow, with the distal fragment displaced anteriorly. *Both types are equally common* - As established, extension-type fractures are far more prevalent than flexion-type fractures, making them not equally common. - The significant disparity in incidence confirms that this statement is incorrect.

Q: Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck. ***Complete fracture with undisplaced neck*** - A **Garden Type II fracture** of the femoral neck is characterized by a **complete fracture line** through the femoral neck. - Despite the complete fracture, the **femoral head remains undisplaced** and in its anatomical position, indicating an intact or minimally disrupted posteromedial soft-tissue hinge. *Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact* - This description corresponds to a **Garden Type I fracture**, which is an **incomplete fracture** of the femoral neck, usually impacted in valgus. - In such cases, the medial trabeculae are often intact, or show buckling on the lateral side, indicating a stable fracture. *Complete fracture with ischemic head* - The presence of an **ischemic head** is a complication that can occur with any displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type III or IV), but it's not a primary defining characteristic of a specific Garden grade. - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** of the femoral head is a risk, especially with displacement, due to disruption of the blood supply. *Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged* - This description is more consistent with a **Garden Type III fracture**, where there is a **complete fracture with moderate displacement** of the femoral head, usually with some varus angulation. - Such displacement significantly increases the risk of **vascular injury** to the femoral head, predisposing to avascular necrosis.

Q: Anterolateral decompression is primarily indicated for

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease). ***Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)*** - **Anterolateral decompression** is crucial for **Pott's disease** to remove infected bone and pus, relieve pressure on the spinal cord, and facilitate fusion. - This approach allows direct access to the anterior spinal column, which is commonly affected by the destructive process of **tuberculosis**. *Spinal metastasis* - While spinal metastasis can cause compression, **anterolateral decompression** is less common as a primary approach; often, surgical treatment involves posterior decompression, stabilization, and adjuvant therapies like radiation. - The goal is often **pain management** and neurological preservation in the context of advanced disease. *Lumbar disc herniation* - **Lumbar disc herniation** is typically addressed by posterior approaches like **microdiscectomy** or laminectomy, which directly access the posterior aspect of the disc. - **Anterolateral decompression** is generally not indicated as the primary treatment for standard disc herniations. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - Surgical intervention in **ankylosing spondylitis** is usually reserved for severe kyphosis or spinal fractures, employing osteotomies and stabilization techniques, often through posterior approaches. - **Anterolateral decompression** is not a standard procedure for the typical manifestations or complications of **ankylosing spondylitis**.

Q: Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Osteoid osteoma. ***Osteoid osteoma*** - This benign bone tumor is characterized by **nocturnal pain** that is typically **relieved by NSAIDs**, a highly distinctive clinical feature due to prostaglandin production within the nidus. - Radiographically, it presents as a small **radiolucent nidus** (less than 1.5 cm) surrounded by a significant margin of **sclerotic bone**. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a **malignant cartilage-forming tumor** that usually presents with a dull, aching pain that is often **not relieved by NSAIDs** and may worsen over time. - Radiographically, it appears as a **large, destructive lesion with calcifications**, not a small nidus with surrounding sclerosis. *Enchondroma* - An enchondroma is a **benign cartilaginous tumor** that is typically found in the medullary cavity of long bones, often in the small bones of the hands and feet. - It is usually **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally, and on imaging, it appears as a **well-circumscribed lytic lesion** without the prominent sclerotic rim or specific nocturnal pain pattern seen in osteoid osteoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **osteoid osteoma** perfectly matches the clinical and radiographic description provided in the question.

Question 1

How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?

Accepted Answer

Cobb's method

Answer

Hamburger method

Answer

Haldane method

Answer

Milwaukee method

Question 2

What is the primary pathology associated with Congenital Dislocation of the Hip (CDH)?

Accepted Answer

Shallow acetabulum

Answer

Large head of femur

Answer

Excessive retroversion

Answer

Coxa vara deformity

Question 3

In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?

Accepted Answer

Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints

Answer

Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints

Answer

None of the above joints

Answer

Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints

Question 4

What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?

Accepted Answer

To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications

Answer

To prevent significant blood loss.

Answer

To reduce pain and discomfort.

Answer

To facilitate quicker healing.

Question 5

Treatment of choice for displaced fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female

Accepted Answer

Multiple screw fixation

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Bipolar hemiarthroplasty

Answer

THR

Question 6

Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Involucrum

Answer

Sequestrum

Answer

Normal bone

Answer

Myositis

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true regarding supracondylar fractures of the humerus?

Accepted Answer

Extension type most common

Answer

Flexion type is less common than extension type

Answer

Both types are equally common

Answer

More common in adults

Question 8

Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Accepted Answer

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck

Answer

Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact

Answer

Complete fracture with ischemic head

Answer

Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged

Question 9

Anterolateral decompression is primarily indicated for

Accepted Answer

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)

Answer

Lumbar disc herniation

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Spinal metastasis

Question 10

Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Accepted Answer

Osteoid osteoma

Answer

Chondrosarcoma

Answer

Enchondroma

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2012 — Orthopaedics