NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: A 35-year-old woman presents with 4 months of amenorrhea, increased FSH, LH, and decreased estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Premature ovarian insufficiency. ***Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI)*** - The patient's age (35 years) combined with 4 months of **amenorrhea**, increased **FSH** and **LH**, and decreased **estrogen** is characteristic of premature ovarian insufficiency (also called premature ovarian failure). - The hormonal profile (**hypergonadotropic hypogonadism**) indicates ovarian failure occurring before the age of **40 years**, which defines POI. - POI affects approximately **1% of women under 40** and can present with amenorrhea, infertility, and symptoms of estrogen deficiency. *Menopause* - Menopause is diagnosed after **12 consecutive months of amenorrhea** in a woman, typically occurring around age **51 years** (natural menopause). - While the hormonal profile of elevated FSH/LH and low estrogen is consistent with menopause, the patient's **age of 35 years** and **only 4 months of amenorrhea** do not meet the criteria for natural menopause. *Late menopause* - Late menopause refers to menopause occurring at a later age than average, typically after age **55 years**. - This diagnosis is completely inconsistent with the patient's age of 35 years. *Perimenopause* - Perimenopause is the transitional phase leading up to menopause, characterized by **irregular menstrual cycles** and **fluctuating hormone levels**. - While FSH levels may be elevated at times, perimenopause typically shows **variable hormone levels** rather than the sustained pattern of high FSH/LH with low estrogen seen in this case. - The **sustained amenorrhea** and pronounced hormonal shifts indicate ovarian failure (POI) rather than perimenopausal transition.

Q: 6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?

Only immunoglobulin. ***Only immunoglobulin*** - Giving **immunoglobulin** to a pregnant woman exposed to **chickenpox** provides immediate passive immunity, which is crucial as she is at risk of infection from her child. - This is particularly important because chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to severe maternal disease and congenital varicella syndrome in the fetus. *Acyclovir + immunoglobulin* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral that treats active varicella infection but is not typically given prophylactically in combination with immunoglobulin for exposure unless the woman is already immunocompromised or develops symptoms. - The primary goal for exposed pregnant women is preventing infection through passive immunity, not immediately treating a potential infection. *Vaccination* - **Varicella vaccine** is a live attenuated vaccine and is **contraindicated** during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection. - It is used for pre-conception immunity or post-exposure prophylaxis in non-pregnant individuals if given within a short window, but not for pregnant women. *Acyclovir* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medicine used to treat active chickenpox infections, not to prevent infection immediately after exposure. - It would be considered if the pregnant woman develops symptoms of chickenpox, but not as a primary prophylactic measure in this scenario.

Q: Which drug is known to cause placental abruption?

Cocaine. **Cocaine** - **Cocaine** use during pregnancy is strongly associated with an increased risk of **placental abruption** due to its vasoconstrictive effects on uterine blood vessels. - Its potent **vasoconstrictive properties** lead to uterine ischemia and contractions, which can cause the placenta to detach prematurely from the uterine wall. *Methadone* - While methadone use during pregnancy is associated with risks such as **neonatal abstinence syndrome**, it is not a primary cause of **placental abruption**. - It is often used as a maintenance therapy for opioid-dependent pregnant women to avoid the fluctuating levels of illicit drug use, which can have more severe consequences. *Amphetamine* - Amphetamine use can lead to adverse pregnancy outcomes like **preterm birth** and **low birth weight** due to its stimulant effects. - Although it causes vasoconstriction, its association with **placental abruption** is less direct and less pronounced compared to cocaine. *Fluoxetine* - Fluoxetine, an **SSRI antidepressant**, generally has a relatively safe profile in pregnancy, although some studies suggest a small increased risk of persistent **pulmonary hypertension** in neonates. - It is not known to be a cause of **placental abruption**.

Q: Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome. ***Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome*** - A **negative CST** indicates that there are no late or significant variable decelerations in response to uterine contractions, suggesting the fetus can tolerate labor. - This finding is strongly correlated with **fetal well-being** and a low likelihood of fetal distress in the near future, with a **negative predictive value of approximately 99%**. *Invasive method* - The CST is considered a **non-invasive test**, as it involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. - No instruments are inserted into the body, differentiating it from truly invasive procedures like **amniocentesis**. *Detects fetal well being* - While the CST provides valuable information, it specifically assesses **uteroplacental function and fetal oxygenation reserve** during the stress of contractions, rather than comprehensive fetal well-being. - It identifies fetuses at risk for **uteroplacental insufficiency** but does not evaluate other parameters of fetal health. - Other tests like the **biophysical profile** offer a more comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, including parameters like fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. *Oxytocin is never used in the test* - **Oxytocin** is frequently used to induce uterine contractions if spontaneous contractions are insufficient for the test (oxytocin challenge test or OCT). - Alternatively, **nipple stimulation** can be used to achieve adequate contractions for the CST.

Q: What is the investigation of choice in postmenopausal bleeding?

Ultrasound. ***Ultrasound*** - An initial **transvaginal ultrasound** is the investigation of choice to assess the endometrial thickness in postmenopausal bleeding. An endometrial thickness of >4-5mm often warrants further investigation. - It helps in **ruling out endometrial pathologies** like hyperplasia, polyps, or carcinoma. *PAP smear* - A **PAP smear** is a screening test for cervical cancer, not typically used to investigate postmenopausal bleeding originating from the uterus. - While it can detect some endometrial cells, it is **not sensitive** or specific enough to diagnose the cause of postmenopausal bleeding. *Laparoscopy* - **Laparoscopy** is a surgical procedure used to visualize pelvic organs and is generally employed for diagnosing and treating conditions like endometriosis, ovarian cysts, or ectopic pregnancies. - It is **not the initial investigation** for postmenopausal bleeding and is too invasive for primary diagnosis unless other methods have failed or a specific pathology is suspected. *Fractional curettage* - **Fractional curettage** involves scraping the lining of the cervix and uterus to obtain tissue samples for histological examination. - While it can be diagnostic for endometrial pathology, it is typically performed **after an initial ultrasound** has identified increased endometrial thickness or other suspicious findings, and less commonly as a standalone initial investigation.

Q: Which of the following is a recognized method for the delivery of the after-coming head of a breech?

Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver. ***Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver*** - The **Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver** is the **gold standard** and most widely recognized method for delivering the after-coming head in breech delivery. - The technique involves the accoucheur placing the **index and middle fingers over the maxilla** (malar eminence) to flex the fetal head, while the fetal body rests on the forearm. - An assistant applies **suprapubic pressure** to maintain flexion of the fetal head. - This method provides excellent **control of the fetal head** and maintains proper flexion to prevent extension and facilitate safe delivery. *Burns and Marshall method* - The **Burns-Marshall method** is also a recognized technique for assisted breech delivery, but it is typically used when the body delivers spontaneously. - This method involves holding the fetal feet and allowing the baby to hang by its own weight, promoting flexion, then sweeping the baby upward over the maternal abdomen. - While valid, it is generally considered an **alternative** to the Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver rather than the primary method. *Forceps method* - **Piper forceps** are specifically designed for the after-coming head and are a recognized method, particularly when manual methods fail or in cases of **fetal distress**. - However, forceps application requires specific expertise and may not be the first-line approach in all settings. - When used appropriately, forceps provide controlled delivery and protect the fetal head. *Malar flexion and shoulder traction* - This is **not a recognized standard method** as described. - While malar pressure is used in the Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver, **shoulder traction** is dangerous and can cause **brachial plexus injury**, **Erb's palsy**, or **spinal cord damage**. - Traction should never be applied to the shoulders during breech delivery.

Q: Nuchal translucency is used in

ANC USG. ***ANC USG*** - **Nuchal translucency** measurement is a key component of the **first-trimester antenatal ultrasound** (ANC USG). - It helps in screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** and certain cardiac defects. *Head scan* - A head scan (e.g., CT or MRI of the head) is used to evaluate the **brain** and **skull** for conditions like tumors, strokes, or trauma. - It is not routinely used for fetal screening or nuchal translucency assessment. *MRI neck* - **MRI of the neck** is employed to visualize soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in the neck region. - Its primary use is in diagnosing conditions like cervical disc herniations, spinal cord compression, or neck masses, not for fetal screening. *Anthropometry* - **Anthropometry** involves the measurement of the human body, such as height, weight, and limb circumference. - While general measurements are taken during pregnancy, anthropometry specifically does not refer to the assessment of nuchal translucency.

Q: What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?

4.0. ***4.0*** - The typical vaginal pH in a pregnant woman is **acidic**, generally ranging from 3.5 to 4.5, with **4.0 being the most commonly cited average value** during pregnancy. - This **acidic environment** is crucial for maintaining a healthy vaginal flora, primarily dominated by **Lactobacillus species**, which produce lactic acid from glycogen deposits in vaginal epithelium. - The increased estrogen levels during pregnancy promote glycogen deposition, supporting lactobacilli growth and maintaining this acidic pH. *4.5* - While 4.5 is **also within the normal range** (3.5-4.5) for pregnant women, it represents the **upper limit** of normal vaginal pH during pregnancy. - Although still physiologic, **4.0 is more commonly referenced** as the typical value in obstetric literature, making it the best answer for "typical" pH. - A pH consistently at 4.5 or trending upward may warrant monitoring, though it is not necessarily pathological. *5* - A pH of 5 is considered **elevated** and is typically associated with conditions like **bacterial vaginosis** (BV) or **trichomoniasis**, which increase the risk of preterm labor and other complications. - A pH of 5 in pregnancy would raise suspicion and warrant further investigation, as it indicates a **less acidic** environment and disruption of normal lactobacilli-dominated flora. - This elevated pH suggests loss of the protective acidic environment. *>5* - A pH greater than 5 is **abnormal** for a pregnant woman and strongly suggests the presence of a **vaginal infection**, such as bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, or aerobic vaginitis. - This **alkaline shift** favors the growth of pathogenic bacteria over beneficial lactobacilli, significantly increasing the risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes including preterm birth and chorioamnionitis. - Requires prompt evaluation and treatment.

Q: Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

OCPs. ***OCPs*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive-aged women, particularly when contraception is also desired. - They work by stabilizing the **endometrial lining**, reducing menstrual blood loss and regulating cycles. *NOVA T* - NOVA T is a type of **copper IUD (intrauterine device)**, which is known to potentially *increase* menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Its primary function is contraception, not the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Cu IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (Cu IUD)** is generally contraindicated in women with menorrhagia because it can exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding. - While an effective contraceptive, it does not offer therapeutic benefits for managing heavy periods. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a surgical procedure for removing the uterus and is considered a definitive treatment for menorrhagia. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** with irreversible loss of fertility, typically reserved for severe cases where conservative treatments have failed or when other uterine pathology is present.

Q: Which of the following statements about Hegar's sign is false?

Present in 2/3rd of cases. ***Present in 2/3rd of cases*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this question. - Hegar's sign, while a classic sign of pregnancy, is not consistently present in 2/3rds of cases with such statistical certainty. - Its detectability varies significantly depending on **gestational age** (optimal 6-12 weeks), **uterine position** (retroverted uterus makes it harder), **examiner experience**, and **patient body habitus**. - This specific "2/3rd" frequency claim lacks strong evidence-based support in obstetric literature. *Bimanual palpation method* - This statement is TRUE. - **Hegar's sign** is elicited by **bimanual pelvic examination** where one hand is placed on the abdomen and the other in the vagina to palpate the softening and compressibility of the **lower uterine segment** (isthmus). - The examiner feels the cervix and uterine fundus separately with the soft isthmus compressed between the examining fingers. *Difficult in obese* - This statement is TRUE. - **Obesity** makes any deep abdominal or pelvic palpation more challenging due to increased adipose tissue. - The **softening of the lower uterine segment** is harder to appreciate, reducing the sensitivity of detecting Hegar's sign in obese patients. *Can be done at 14 weeks* - This statement is technically TRUE but represents suboptimal timing. - **Hegar's sign** is most reliably detectable between the **6th and 12th weeks of gestation**. - At **14 weeks**, while the examination can still be performed, the uterus has grown significantly and risen into the abdomen, making the lower uterine segment less compressible and the sign much less prominent or absent. - The statement doesn't claim it's "optimal" at 14 weeks, only that it "can be done," which is technically accurate even if clinically impractical.

Question 1

A 35-year-old woman presents with 4 months of amenorrhea, increased FSH, LH, and decreased estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Premature ovarian insufficiency

Answer

Menopause

Answer

Late menopause

Answer

Perimenopause

Question 2

6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?

Accepted Answer

Only immunoglobulin

Answer

Acyclovir + immunoglobulin

Answer

Vaccination

Answer

Acyclovir

Question 3

Which drug is known to cause placental abruption?

Accepted Answer

Cocaine

Answer

Amphetamine

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Methadone

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Accepted Answer

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome

Answer

Invasive method

Answer

Detects fetal well being

Answer

Oxytocin is never used in the test

Question 5

What is the investigation of choice in postmenopausal bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Ultrasound

Answer

PAP smear

Answer

Laparoscopy

Answer

Fractional curettage

Question 6

Which of the following is a recognized method for the delivery of the after-coming head of a breech?

Accepted Answer

Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver

Answer

Burns and Marshall method

Answer

Malar flexion and shoulder traction

Answer

Forceps method

Question 7

Nuchal translucency is used in

Accepted Answer

ANC USG

Answer

Head scan

Answer

MRI neck

Answer

Anthropometry

Question 8

What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?

Accepted Answer

4.0

Answer

4.5

Answer

5

Answer

>5

Question 9

Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

Accepted Answer

OCPs

Answer

Cu IUD

Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

NOVA T

Question 10

Which of the following statements about Hegar's sign is false?

Accepted Answer

Present in 2/3rd of cases

Answer

Bimanual palpation method

Answer

Difficult in obese

Answer

Can be done at 14 weeks

NEET-PG 2012 — Obstetrics and Gynecology