NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: What is the initial drug of choice for ovarian cancer?

Cisplatin. ***Cisplatin*** - **Cisplatin** is a platinum-based chemotherapy drug that forms DNA adducts, leading to apoptosis and is a **first-line agent** for ovarian cancer. - Historically, it was the platinum agent of choice and is typically used in combination with a taxane (e.g., **paclitaxel**) for initial treatment of advanced disease. - **Note:** In current practice, **carboplatin** has largely replaced cisplatin as the preferred platinum agent due to better tolerability, less nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity, and easier administration, while maintaining equivalent efficacy. - Among the options listed, **cisplatin remains the correct answer** as it is the only platinum-based first-line agent. *Doxorubicin* - **Doxorubicin** is an **anthracycline antibiotic** used in various cancers but is **not a first-line drug** for ovarian cancer. - It may be used in recurrent or platinum-resistant disease. - Its use is limited due to potential **cardiotoxicity**. *Ifosfamide* - **Ifosfamide** is an **alkylating agent** that is generally reserved for **recurrent** or refractory ovarian cancer. - It is associated with **hemorrhagic cystitis** (preventable with mesna) and neurotoxicity. - Not part of standard first-line treatment. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **antimetabolite** primarily used in other cancers like choriocarcinoma and is **not a standard treatment** for epithelial ovarian cancer. - It works by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase, disrupting DNA synthesis. - Has no role in first-line ovarian cancer treatment.

Q: Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

OCPs. ***OCPs*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive-aged women, particularly when contraception is also desired. - They work by stabilizing the **endometrial lining**, reducing menstrual blood loss and regulating cycles. *NOVA T* - NOVA T is a type of **copper IUD (intrauterine device)**, which is known to potentially *increase* menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Its primary function is contraception, not the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Cu IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (Cu IUD)** is generally contraindicated in women with menorrhagia because it can exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding. - While an effective contraceptive, it does not offer therapeutic benefits for managing heavy periods. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a surgical procedure for removing the uterus and is considered a definitive treatment for menorrhagia. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** with irreversible loss of fertility, typically reserved for severe cases where conservative treatments have failed or when other uterine pathology is present.

Q: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.

Q: In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

6 to 10 weeks. ***6 to 10 weeks*** - **Hegar's sign** is a softening of the lower uterine segment, which is a probable sign of pregnancy detected during a **bimanual examination**. - This softening typically becomes noticeable and palpable between **6 and 10 weeks of gestation** due to increased vascularity and edema in the area. *10-14 weeks* - While the uterus continues to soften and enlarge, **Hegar's sign** is usually established earlier, making it less specific or prominent for confirmation in this later window. - At this stage, other signs of pregnancy, such as a **palpable fetal outline** or **fetal heart tones**, become more readily apparent. *14-18 weeks* - By this gestational period, the uterus is significantly larger and has risen out of the pelvic cavity, making the specific assessment of the **lower uterine segment's compressibility** as an isolated sign less relevant. - **Fetal movements** (quickening) may also be felt during this time, serving as a more direct indicator of pregnancy. *18-22 weeks* - At these later weeks, the uterus is distinctly enlarged, and much of the diagnosis relies on **fundal height assessment** and further monitoring of fetal development. - **Hegar's sign** is a very early sign of pregnancy and would not be used for confirmation in this advanced stage.

Q: What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?

Serum progesterone. ***Serum progesterone*** - A **serum progesterone level** of greater than **3 ng/mL (or 10 nmol/L)** in the mid-luteal phase (approximately 7 days after the presumed ovulation) reliably indicates that ovulation has occurred. - After ovulation, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces progesterone, causing a characteristic rise in its serum level. *Serum estrogen* - Estrogen levels **peak before ovulation** to trigger the LH surge and also rise during the luteal phase, but a single measurement is not a reliable indicator that ovulation has successfully occurred. - Estrogen levels can fluctuate due to various factors and do not directly confirm the **formation and function of a corpus luteum** as progesterone does. *Both serum estrogen and progesterone* - While both hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle, relying on both simultaneously for confirming *occurred* ovulation is not the most precise method. - A significant rise in **progesterone** *after* the presumed ovulatory event is the key reliable biomarker. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **serum progesterone** is a well-established and reliable test for confirming ovulation.

Q: The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

36 weeks. ***36 weeks*** - At **36 weeks gestation**, there is still enough **amniotic fluid** and fetal size is not too large, which allows for successful manipulation. - This timing is particularly optimal for **multiparous women** according to **RCOG guidelines** (36-37 weeks). - This timing also minimizes the risk of **spontaneous reversion** back to a breech presentation before labor begins. - Balances adequate fetal maturity with sufficient uterine space for successful version. *34 weeks* - Performing an external cephalic version (ECV) at 34 weeks has a lower success rate and a higher chance of **spontaneous reversion** due to the smaller fetal size and relatively more amniotic fluid. - The chance of **spontaneous cephalic version** (natural turning) is still significant at this stage, making an earlier intervention potentially unnecessary. - Too early for routine ECV as many breech presentations spontaneously convert to cephalic before 36 weeks. *38 weeks* - By 38 weeks, the fetus is larger and there is proportionally less **amniotic fluid**, which makes successful external version more difficult and painful for the mother. - While **ACOG recommends 37-38 weeks**, the success rate decreases with advancing gestation due to reduced uterine space. - The risk of **uterine contractions** and iatrogenic induction of labor is higher at this gestation. *40 weeks* - At 40 weeks, the fetus is at term and much larger, occupying most of the uterine cavity, significantly reducing the chances of a successful external version. - The risk of complications such as **placental abruption**, **cord compression**, and premature labor is increased. - Success rates are markedly lower, making routine ECV at this stage generally not recommended.

Q: What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?

Shoulder. ***Shoulder*** - In a **transverse lie**, the fetal **shoulder** is the part that presents over the pelvic inlet. - This occurs when the fetal long axis is 90 degrees to the maternal spine. *Face* - A **face presentation** is a type of **cephalic presentation** where the head is hyperextended, and the face is the presenting part. - This is not characteristic of a transverse lie. *Vertex* - A **vertex presentation** is the most common and ideal **cephalic presentation**, where the head is flexed and the top of the head (vertex) is the presenting part. - This indicates a longitudinal lie, not a transverse lie. *Brow* - A **brow presentation** is also a type of **cephalic presentation** where the fetal head is partially extended, and the brow is the presenting part. - Like vertex and face presentations, this occurs with a longitudinal fetal lie.

Q: Which of the following is a recognized method for the delivery of the after-coming head of a breech?

Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver. ***Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver*** - The **Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver** is the **gold standard** and most widely recognized method for delivering the after-coming head in breech delivery. - The technique involves the accoucheur placing the **index and middle fingers over the maxilla** (malar eminence) to flex the fetal head, while the fetal body rests on the forearm. - An assistant applies **suprapubic pressure** to maintain flexion of the fetal head. - This method provides excellent **control of the fetal head** and maintains proper flexion to prevent extension and facilitate safe delivery. *Burns and Marshall method* - The **Burns-Marshall method** is also a recognized technique for assisted breech delivery, but it is typically used when the body delivers spontaneously. - This method involves holding the fetal feet and allowing the baby to hang by its own weight, promoting flexion, then sweeping the baby upward over the maternal abdomen. - While valid, it is generally considered an **alternative** to the Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver rather than the primary method. *Forceps method* - **Piper forceps** are specifically designed for the after-coming head and are a recognized method, particularly when manual methods fail or in cases of **fetal distress**. - However, forceps application requires specific expertise and may not be the first-line approach in all settings. - When used appropriately, forceps provide controlled delivery and protect the fetal head. *Malar flexion and shoulder traction* - This is **not a recognized standard method** as described. - While malar pressure is used in the Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver, **shoulder traction** is dangerous and can cause **brachial plexus injury**, **Erb's palsy**, or **spinal cord damage**. - Traction should never be applied to the shoulders during breech delivery.

Q: What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

Delivery of the baby. ***Delivery of the baby*** - **Preeclampsia** is a multisystem disorder of pregnancy; its pathogenesis is directly linked to the **placenta**. - **Removal of the placenta** through delivery is the only definitive cure for preeclampsia, leading to the resolution of symptoms. *Use of antihypertensive medications* - Antihypertensive medications are used to **manage blood pressure** in preeclampsia, preventing complications like stroke. - They **do not address the underlying cause** of the disease and are not a curative treatment. *Dietary modifications* - While a healthy diet is important during pregnancy, **dietary modifications** alone cannot resolve the pathological processes of preeclampsia. - There is **no specific diet** proven to cure or prevent preeclampsia. *Increased rest and monitoring* - **Increased rest and close monitoring** are supportive measures that can help manage symptoms and detect complications. - These interventions **do not reverse the disease process** and are not a definitive treatment.

Q: Which structure is least likely to be injured during common gynecological procedures?

Renal pelvis. ***Renal pelvis*** - The **renal pelvis** is anatomically distant from the surgical fields of most common gynecological procedures, making injury unlikely. - Its protected position deep within the abdominal cavity, surrounded by fat and muscle, generally shields it from inadvertent trauma during pelvic surgery. *Ureter at pelvic brim* - The **ureter** crosses the **pelvic brim**, an area often involved in gynecological dissections, especially during procedures like **pelvic lymphadenectomy** or management of large masses. - It is susceptible to injury during instrumentation or clamping in this region due to its close proximity to pelvic vessels. *Urinary bladder* - The **urinary bladder** is frequently in the surgical field during gynecological procedures, particularly those involving the anterior vaginal wall, cervix, or uterus (e.g., **hysterectomy**, **cystocele repair**). - Its thin wall and close proximity make it vulnerable to perforation, laceration, or thermal injury. *Ureter at infundibulopelvic ligament* - The **ureter** passes perilously close to the **infundibulopelvic ligament** (suspensory ligament of the ovary) as it enters the pelvis. - This area is frequently ligated or clamped during **oophorectomy** or adnexal mass removal, placing the ureter at high risk of kinking, ligation, or transection.

Question 1

What is the initial drug of choice for ovarian cancer?

Accepted Answer

Cisplatin

Answer

Doxorubicin

Answer

Ifosfamide

Answer

Methotrexate

Question 2

Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

Accepted Answer

OCPs

Answer

Cu IUD

Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

NOVA T

Question 3

Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta praevia

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Question 4

In which gestational weeks is Hegar's sign typically observed?

Accepted Answer

6 to 10 weeks

Answer

10-14 weeks

Answer

14-18 weeks

Answer

18-22 weeks

Question 5

What is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation after it has occurred?

Accepted Answer

Serum progesterone

Answer

Serum estrogen

Answer

Both serum estrogen and progesterone

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

Accepted Answer

36 weeks

Answer

34 weeks

Answer

38 weeks

Answer

40 weeks

Question 7

What is the presenting part in a transverse lie?

Accepted Answer

Shoulder

Answer

Face

Answer

Vertex

Answer

Brow

Question 8

Which of the following is a recognized method for the delivery of the after-coming head of a breech?

Accepted Answer

Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver

Answer

Burns and Marshall method

Answer

Malar flexion and shoulder traction

Answer

Forceps method

Question 9

What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

Accepted Answer

Delivery of the baby

Answer

Use of antihypertensive medications

Answer

Dietary modifications

Answer

Increased rest and monitoring

Question 10

Which structure is least likely to be injured during common gynecological procedures?

Accepted Answer

Renal pelvis

Answer

Ureter at pelvic brim

Answer

Urinary bladder

Answer

Ureter at infundibulopelvic ligament

NEET-PG 2012 — Obstetrics and Gynecology