Pavlov's experiment is an example of which of the following learning theories?
Who is known as the father of modern psychiatry?
What is the age range associated with the concrete operational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?
Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
What is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?
A student unable to deliver speech before an audience is suffering from?
Astasia-abasia is associated with which of the following conditions?
Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Pavlov's experiment is an example of which of the following learning theories?
- A. Modeling
- B. Classical conditioning (Correct Answer)
- C. Operant conditioning
- D. Learned helplessness
Explanation: ***Classical conditioning*** - Pavlov's experiment with dogs, where he conditioned them to **salivate** at the sound of a bell, is the quintessential example of **classical conditioning**. - This learning theory involves forming an association between a **neutral stimulus** (the bell) and a **natural stimulus** (food) that produces an involuntary response (salivation). *Modeling* - **Modeling**, or observational learning, involves learning by **observing and imitating** others. - This theory is associated with **Albert Bandura** and his Bobo doll experiment, which is different from Pavlov's stimulus-response pairing. *Operant conditioning* - **Operant conditioning** involves learning through **rewards and punishments** for voluntary behaviors. - This theory is primarily associated with **B.F. Skinner**, where an organism learns to associate a behavior with its consequences. *Learned helplessness* - **Learned helplessness** occurs when an individual or animal learns that they have no control over negative situations, leading to a sense of powerlessness and **giving up**. - This concept was developed by **Martin Seligman** and is not related to Pavlov's experiments on associative learning.
Question 42: Who is known as the father of modern psychiatry?
- A. Bleuler
- B. Freud
- C. Kraepelin
- D. Philippe Pinel (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Philippe Pinel*** - **Philippe Pinel** is widely regarded as the **father of modern psychiatry** due to his revolutionary reforms in the treatment of the mentally ill in the late 18th and early 19th centuries - He advocated for a more humane approach, removing chains from patients and emphasizing **moral treatment**, which laid the foundation for modern psychiatric care - His work at Bicêtre Hospital (1793) and Salpêtrière Hospital marked a paradigm shift from custodial care to therapeutic intervention *Bleuler* - **Eugen Bleuler** is known for coining the term **"schizophrenia"** (1911) and describing its fundamental symptoms (the "four A's": associations, affect, ambivalence, autism) - While his contributions were significant in understanding and classifying mental illness, he built upon the foundations of humane psychiatric care already laid by Pinel *Freud* - **Sigmund Freud** is considered the **father of psychoanalysis**, a distinct therapeutic approach and theory of personality - His work focused on the unconscious mind, defense mechanisms, and psychosexual development, which are central to psychoanalytic theory but not the foundational shift in psychiatric care management that Pinel initiated *Kraepelin* - **Emil Kraepelin** is often referred to as the **father of modern psychiatric classification** due to his systematic approach to categorizing mental disorders based on their clinical course and outcome (dementia praecox vs manic-depressive illness) - His work profoundly influenced the development of diagnostic manuals like the DSM, but his focus was on nosology and classification rather than the initial humane treatment reform
Question 43: What is the age range associated with the concrete operational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
- A. 2-6 years
- B. 5-10 years
- C. 7-11 years (Correct Answer)
- D. 10-15 years
Explanation: ***7-11 years*** - This age range aligns with Piaget's **concrete operational stage**, during which children develop **logical thinking** about concrete events. - They begin to understand **conservation**, classification, and seriation. *2-6 years* - This range corresponds to the **preoperational stage**, characterized by **egocentrism** and reliance on intuition rather than logical reasoning. - Children in this stage have not yet mastered the concept of conservation. *5-10 years* - While it partially overlaps, this range is not the precise and commonly accepted period for the **concrete operational stage** in Piaget's theory. - The upper limit of 10 years excludes the latter portion of this cognitive stage. *10-15 years* - This age range predominantly represents the **formal operational stage**, where adolescents develop the ability for **abstract thought**, hypothetical reasoning, and systematic problem-solving. - This thinking is more advanced than the concrete operations.
Question 44: According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?
- A. 1 week
- B. 3 weeks
- C. 2 weeks
- D. 1 month (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1 month*** - According to **DSM-5 criteria**, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting more than **1 day** but less than **1 month**. - If psychotic symptoms persist for **1 month or longer**, it indicates a different diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder or schizophrenia, requiring further evaluation. *1 week* - While psychotic symptoms may be present for 1 week in brief psychotic disorder, this duration is within the disorder's diagnostic window but not its defining upper limit. - The key differentiator for brief psychotic disorder is that symptoms resolve within **1 month**. *2 weeks* - Similar to 1 week, 2 weeks is a duration that can occur within brief psychotic disorder, but it does not represent the minimum duration that distinguishes it from longer-term conditions. - The crucial threshold for duration in brief psychotic disorder is **less than 1 month**. *3 weeks* - Three weeks also falls within the diagnostic duration for brief psychotic disorder. - The essential criteria specify that psychotic symptoms must last **less than 1 month** to be classified as brief psychotic disorder.
Question 45: Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
- A. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
- B. Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)
- C. Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder) (Correct Answer)
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)*** - **Conversion disorder** is characterized by neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**, yet are not intentionally produced. - It falls under **somatic symptom and related disorders** because the primary features are physical symptoms causing distress or functional impairment, rather than being malingered or feigned. *Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)* - **Phobic disorders** are classified under **anxiety disorders** in the DSM-5, not somatic symptom and related disorders. - They are primarily characterized by **intense, irrational fears** of specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance rather than prominent physical symptoms without a medical cause. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)* - **PTSD** is classified under **trauma- and stressor-related disorders** in the DSM-5, distinguished by symptoms developing after exposure to a traumatic event. - Its core features include **intrusive memories, avoidance, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity**, rather than unexplained physical symptoms. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - **OCD** is classified under **obsessive-compulsive and related disorders** in the DSM-5. - It is primarily characterized by the presence of **obsessions (recurrent, intrusive thoughts)** and/or **compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts)**, which are distinct from somatic symptoms.
Question 46: What is the drug of choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder?
- A. Alprazolam
- B. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
- C. Phenytoin
- D. β-blocker
Explanation: ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is effective for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and has a lower risk of dependence and sedation compared to benzodiazepines. - It acts as a partial agonist at **5-HT1A serotonin receptors**, which contributes to its anxiolytic effects without affecting GABAergic systems. *β-blocker* - **β-blockers** are primarily used to manage the **physical symptoms of anxiety**, such as palpitations and tremors, often in performance anxiety, rather than the core cognitive and emotional symptoms of GAD. - They do not address the underlying psychological aspects of generalized anxiety. *Alprazolam* - **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** that provides rapid relief of anxiety symptoms but carries a significant risk of **dependence, withdrawal, and sedation**, making it less suitable for long-term treatment of GAD. - Due to these risks, benzodiazepines are typically reserved for short-term use or acute anxiety management rather than as a first-line treatment for chronic GAD. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is an **antiepileptic drug** primarily used to treat seizures and does not have a recognized role in the management of generalized anxiety disorder. - Its mechanism of action involves stabilizing neuronal membranes and is unrelated to the neurochemical pathways targeted in anxiety disorders.
Question 47: A student unable to deliver speech before an audience is suffering from?
- A. Social anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Fear of open spaces
- C. Fear of enclosed spaces
- D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Explanation: ***Social anxiety disorder*** - This condition involves an intense, persistent fear of social situations, particularly those where one might be scrutinized or judged by others. - Public speaking is a classic scenario that can trigger significant distress and avoidance in individuals with **social anxiety disorder**. *Fear of open spaces* - This symptom describes **agoraphobia**, which is an anxiety disorder characterized by fear and avoidance of situations or places that might cause panic, helplessness, or embarrassment, often due to a perceived inability to escape. - While it can sometimes involve fear of public gatherings, its core is about escape/safety from open, unfamiliar, or overwhelming spaces, not specifically about performance. *Fear of enclosed spaces* - This refers to **claustrophobia**, which is an anxiety disorder characterized by an irrational fear of confined spaces. - It does not involve the fear of speaking or performance before an audience. *Obsessive Compulsive Disorder* - **OCD** is characterized by recurrent and persistent thoughts (obsessions) and/or repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) performed to reduce anxiety. - It does not typically manifest as an inability to deliver a speech before an audience unless the obsessions or compulsions directly interfere with such an activity, which is not the primary mechanism of this symptom.
Question 48: Astasia-abasia is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
- B. Depressive Disorder
- C. Bipolar Mood Disorder
- D. Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder*** - **Astasia-abasia**, which refers to an inability to stand (astasia) and walk (abasia) despite normal motor function when examined in bed, is a classical presentation of **Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder** (formerly conversion disorder). - This disorder involves neurological symptoms that are incompatible with recognized medical conditions and often linked to **psychological stressors**. - The gait disturbance is bizarre and inconsistent with any known neurological pattern. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder* - Characterized by re-experiencing a **traumatic event**, avoidance behaviors, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and hyperarousal. - While it can manifest with physical symptoms, **astasia-abasia** is not a primary or characteristic feature. *Depressive Disorder* - Primarily involves persistent **sadness**, loss of interest or pleasure, changes in appetite or sleep, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. - Although physical symptoms like fatigue and psychomotor retardation can occur, **astasia-abasia** is not a typical presentation. *Bipolar Mood Disorder* - Distinguished by episodes of both **mania** (or hypomania) and **depression**. - Symptoms are predominantly mood-related, including extreme shifts in energy, activity levels, and concentration, not specific neurological deficits like astasia-abasia.
Question 49: Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?
- A. Sexual symptom
- B. Pain symptom
- C. GI symptom
- D. Visual symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Visual symptoms*** - **Visual symptoms** is NOT a separate diagnostic category in DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder criteria. - While visual symptoms (such as **double vision** or **blindness**) ARE part of the diagnostic criteria, they fall under the **pseudoneurological symptom** category, not as a distinct standalone category. - The DSM-IV-TR required **one pseudoneurological symptom** (which could include visual, motor, sensory symptoms, or seizures), but did not list "visual symptoms" as one of the four main symptom categories. *Sexual symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for somatization disorder explicitly included **sexual symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **one sexual symptom** was required (such as sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, irregular menses, or painful intercourse). *Pain symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **pain symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - The criteria required **four pain symptoms** occurring in at least four different sites or functions (e.g., head, abdomen, back, joints, chest). *GI symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **gastrointestinal symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **two gastrointestinal symptoms** were required (such as nausea, bloating, vomiting other than during pregnancy, or diarrhea). **Key Point:** The four DSM-IV-TR symptom categories for somatization disorder were: (1) Pain, (2) Gastrointestinal, (3) Sexual, and (4) Pseudoneurological—NOT "visual symptoms" as a separate category.
Question 50: Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
- A. Starts in childhood.
- B. Behavior is maladaptive.
- C. Disorder results in personal distress.
- D. Ego dystonic symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ego dystonic symptoms*** - Personality disorders are characterized by **ego-syntonic** traits, meaning the individual perceives their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors as consistent with their self-image and acceptable. - **Ego-dystonic symptoms**, conversely, are experienced as alien, inconsistent with one's self-concept, and distressing (e.g., in OCD or major depressive disorder), which is **definitively NOT** a feature of personality disorders. - This is the key distinguishing feature: personality disorder traits are not perceived as problematic by the individual themselves (ego-syntonic), unlike neurotic disorders. *Starts in childhood.* - While personality traits and vulnerabilities may emerge in childhood, **formal diagnosis** of personality disorders is made in **late adolescence or early adulthood** (typically after age 18). - Per DSM-5 and ICD-11, the enduring pattern must be evident by early adulthood. - However, this option is less definitive as some underlying patterns do appear earlier, making "ego dystonic" the better answer. *Behavior is maladaptive.* - A **core diagnostic feature** of personality disorders is a pervasive pattern of **maladaptive behaviors** and inner experiences that deviate from cultural expectations. - These behaviors lead to distress, impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. - This IS characteristic of personality disorders. *Disorder results in personal distress.* - Despite ego-syntonic symptoms, individuals with personality disorders frequently experience **significant personal distress**, often arising from consequences of their behaviors, interpersonal conflicts, or functional impairment. - This distress IS characteristic, though it may be indirect rather than from the symptoms themselves. - This IS a feature of personality disorders.