NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine PYQs Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements regarding falciparum malaria is false?

Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy. ***Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy*** - This statement is **false** because many strains of *Plasmodium falciparum* are now **resistant to chloroquine**, making it ineffective for prevention or treatment in most endemic areas [1]. - The widespread **drug resistance** of *P. falciparum* to chloroquine means it is no longer considered an adequate preventative measure. *Haemoglobinuria and renal failure* - These are **true** complications of severe *Falciparum malaria*, often termed **"blackwater fever"**, due to massive **intravascular hemolysis** and subsequent **acute kidney injury** [1]. - Renal failure can result from **hemoglobinuria**, **hypovolemia**, and **acidosis** associated with severe infection. *Hypoglycemia* - **Hypoglycemia** is a **true** and life-threatening complication of severe *Falciparum malaria*, particularly in children, pregnant women, and patients treated with **quinine** [1]. - It occurs due to increased **glucose consumption** by parasites and host cells, impaired **gluconeogenesis**, and drug-induced **insulin secretion**. *Cerebral malaria* - **Cerebral malaria** is a **true**, severe, and often fatal neurological complication of *Falciparum malaria*, characterized by **impaired consciousness** or **coma** [1]. - It is caused by **sequestration** of parasitized red blood cells in the **cerebral microvasculature**, leading to **microcirculatory obstruction** and inflammation. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which condition is primarily associated with tetany?

Hypocalcemia. ***Hypocalcemia*** - **Tetany** is a neuromuscular hyperexcitability state resulting from critically low levels of **ionized calcium** in the extracellular fluid [2]. - Reduced extracellular calcium increases neuronal membrane excitability, leading to spontaneous and repetitive nerve discharges and muscle contractions. *Hypercalcemia* - **Hypercalcemia** refers to elevated calcium levels, which *decreases* neuromuscular excitability. - Symptoms typically involve **fatigue, weakness, constipation, and kidney stones**, rather than tetany [1]. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is a common cause of **hypercalcemia** due to increased PTH secretion [3]. - Therefore, it leads to symptoms associated with high calcium, not low calcium and tetany. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **hypocalcemia** is a well-established cause of tetany. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is NOT a recommended primary management option for a patient with a snake bite?

Wash with soap and water. ***Wash with soap and water*** - Washing the bite with soap and water is **NOT** a recommended primary management option for a snake bite as it can spread the **venom**, potentially worsening the local effects and systemic absorption [1]. - The focus should be on **immobilization and minimizing movement** to restrict venom spread [1], [3]. *Splinting and immobilization* - **Immobilization** of the bitten limb is crucial to reduce venom dissemination through the **lymphatic system** [1], [2]. - This helps to **slow the absorption** of venom into the systemic circulation [1], [3]. *Reassure the patient* - **Anxiety and panic** can increase heart rate and metabolism, potentially accelerating venom absorption. - **Reassurance** helps to calm the patient, which can slow the spread of venom and improve cooperation with treatment [1], [2]. *Keep the site of bite below heart level* - Keeping the affected limb **below heart level** helps to reduce blood flow and, consequently, the systemic spread of venom [1]. - This simple maneuver can **delay the onset** of systemic toxic effects [1]. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is used in the treatment of well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma?

I131. ***I131*** - **Radioactive iodine (I131)** is specifically absorbed by **well-differentiated thyroid cancer cells** because these cells retain the ability to uptake iodine, unlike other types of cancer cells. - Used for **ablating residual thyroid tissue** after surgery and for treating **metastatic well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma** [1]. *99m Tc* - **Technetium-99m (99m Tc)** is primarily used for **diagnostic imaging** (e.g., thyroid scans, bone scans), not for therapeutic treatment of thyroid cancer. - It has a short half-life and emits gamma rays, making it suitable for imaging but generally not for delivering sustained radiation for therapeutic effect. *32p* - **Phosphorus-32 (32p)** is a beta-emitting radionuclide used in the treatment of certain hematological malignancies, such as **polycythemia vera**, and for palliative treatment of bone metastases. - It is not selectively taken up by thyroid cancer cells and therefore is not used in the treatment of thyroid carcinoma. *MIBG* - **Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG)**, often labeled with I123 (diagnostic) or I131 (therapeutic), is used in the diagnosis and treatment of **neuroendocrine tumors** like **pheochromocytoma** and **neuroblastoma**. - Its uptake mechanism targets cells of neuroectodermal origin, which is distinct from the iodine uptake mechanism of thyroid cells. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the primary vascular abnormality associated with intestinal angiodysplasia?

Arteriovenous malformation. ***AV malformation*** - **Intestinal angiodysplasia** is characterized by abnormal **arteriovenous (AV) connections**, leading to vascular lesions in the gut [1]. - These malformations can cause **chronic gastrointestinal bleeding** due to fragility of the blood vessels [1]. *Capillary hemangioma* - This is a **benign vascular tumor** often found in the skin or subcutaneous tissue, not specifically associated with intestinal vascular changes. - **Capillary hemangiomas** typically do not cause significant gastrointestinal bleeding as seen in angiodysplasia. *Malignant tumor* - Intestinal angiodysplasia is a **benign condition** and not a malignant tumor, therefore it does not fit the characteristics of malignancy. - **Malignant tumors** usually present with different symptoms and underlying pathophysiology than angiodysplasia. *Cavernous hemangioma* - This type of hemangioma involves larger vascular channels and is typically more associated with the liver than the intestines. - **Cavernous hemangiomas** do not relate to the intestinal bleeding patterns seen in angiodysplasia. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding falciparum malaria is false?

Accepted Answer

Adequately prevented with chloroquine therapy

Answer

Haemoglobinuria and renal failure

Answer

Hypoglycemia

Answer

Cerebral malaria

Question 2

Which condition is primarily associated with tetany?

Accepted Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a recommended primary management option for a patient with a snake bite?

Accepted Answer

Wash with soap and water

Answer

Reassure the patient

Answer

Splinting and immobilization

Answer

Keep the site of bite below heart level

Question 4

Which of the following is used in the treatment of well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

I131

Answer

99m Tc

Answer

32p

Answer

MIBG

Question 5

What is the primary vascular abnormality associated with intestinal angiodysplasia?

Accepted Answer

Arteriovenous malformation

Answer

Capillary hemangioma (usually superficial)

Answer

Malignant tumor

Answer

Cavernous hemangioma

Question 6

Classification of aortic dissection depends on.

Accepted Answer

Level of aorta affected

Answer

Cause of dissection

Answer

Extent of symptoms

Answer

Percentage of aorta affected

Question 7

Migraine is due to

Accepted Answer

Cortical spreading depression

Answer

Dilatation of cranial blood vessels

Answer

Constriction of cranial blood vessels

Answer

Inflammation of the meninges

Question 8

Which of the following statements about Gilbert syndrome is false?

Accepted Answer

Causes cirrhosis

Answer

Normal liver histology

Answer

Autosomal dominant

Answer

Elevated bilirubin levels are present

Question 9

Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?

Accepted Answer

Optic nerve glioma

Answer

Meningioma

Answer

Acoustic schwannoma

Answer

Low grade astrocytoma

Question 10

Which of the following glands is NOT typically involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type II A (MEN II A)?

Accepted Answer

Pituitary gland

Answer

Thyroid gland

Answer

Parathyroid gland

Answer

Adrenal gland

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine