NEET-PG 2013

1544 Questions — Page 76 of 155

Community Medicine

6 questions

Q751

In which condition is a night blood survey performed?

Q752

Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?

Q753

Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?

Q754

Which of the following statements best describes the operational definition of onchocerciasis elimination?

Q755

Transovarian transmission is seen in-

Q756

What is the primary method of primordial prevention for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 751: In which condition is a night blood survey performed?

A. Lymphatic filariasis (Correct Answer)
B. Typhoid fever
C. Malaria infection
D. Visceral leishmaniasis

Explanation: ***Lymphatic filariasis*** - A **night blood survey** is crucial for diagnosing lymphatic filariasis because the microfilariae of species like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* exhibit **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning they are most abundant in peripheral blood between 10 PM and 2 AM. - Collecting blood at night maximizes the chance of detecting these parasites, which are responsible for the disease. *Typhoid fever* - Diagnosis of **typhoid fever** primarily relies on **blood cultures** taken during the febrile phase, or stool/urine cultures later in the disease. - A night blood survey is not relevant for detecting the causative bacterium, *Salmonella Typhi*. *Malaria infection* - While a **blood smear** is essential for diagnosing malaria, the timing of blood collection is less critical than for filariasis, although peak parasite density can vary. - **Malaria parasites** are typically detected in blood samples taken during symptomatic periods, regardless of specific time of day. *Visceral leishmaniasis* - **Visceral leishmaniasis** is diagnosed by detecting parasites in samples from **bone marrow**, spleen, or lymph nodes, or through serological tests for antibodies. - A night blood survey is not used in the diagnosis of *Leishmania donovani* infection.

Question 752: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Cholera
C. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
D. Meningococcal disease

Explanation: ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.

Question 753: Antiserum is available for passive immunization against ?

A. Rabies (Correct Answer)
B. Typhoid
C. Mumps
D. Measles

Explanation: ***Rabies*** - **Antiserum** (or rabies immune globulin, RIG) provides immediate **passive immunity** against rabies, neutralizing the virus before the body can mount an active immune response. - It is administered in conjunction with the **rabies vaccine** for post-exposure prophylaxis, especially in severe exposures. *Typhoid* - **Typhoid fever** is primarily prevented through vaccination (active immunization) and improved sanitation. - There is no routinely available antiserum for **passive immunization** against *Salmonella typhi* infection. *Measles* - **Measles** is prevented through active immunization with the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine. - While immune globulin can be used for passive protection in exposed, immunocompromised individuals, it's not commonly referred to as "antiserum" in the same context as rabies. *Mumps* - **Mumps** is prevented by active immunization with the MMR vaccine. - Similar to measles, there is no commonly used specific antiserum for **passive immunity** against mumps in the clinical setting.

Question 754: Which of the following statements best describes the operational definition of onchocerciasis elimination?

A. All interventions have been successfully implemented.
B. There is no recrudescence of the disease after a defined period.
C. All of the options are true.
D. Transmission of O. volvulus has been reduced to a level where it cannot sustain itself in the population. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Transmission of O. volvulus has been reduced to a level where it cannot sustain itself in the population.** - This statement accurately reflects the definition of **disease elimination**, where the incidence of infection is reduced to zero in a defined geographical area, signifying that the **transmission cycle can no longer be sustained**. - For onchocerciasis, this means the **vector (blackfly)** is no longer transmitting the parasite (*Onchocerca volvulus*) between humans at a rate that allows the disease to persist. *All interventions have been successfully implemented.* - While successful implementation of interventions is crucial for elimination, it is a **process goal**, not the **ultimate outcome** or operational definition of elimination itself. - Elimination is defined by the **absence of sustained transmission**, which is a direct measure of disease burden, not intervention fidelity. *There is no recrudescence of the disease after a defined period.* - The **absence of recrudescence** (re-emergence) after a defined period is an important indicator of successful elimination validation, but it is a **consequence** or **part of the verification process**, not the primary operational definition. - The operational definition focuses on the **state of transmission** that leads to this sustained absence. *All of the options are true.* - This option is incorrect because only one of the provided statements accurately describes the **operational definition of elimination** in the context of parasitic diseases like onchocerciasis. - The other options describe aspects related to the elimination process or its verification, but not the core definition.

Question 755: Transovarian transmission is seen in-

A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Rickettsial diseases (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Rickettsial diseases*** - **Transovarian transmission** is a key mechanism for the maintenance and spread of **rickettsiae** in arthropod vectors. The bacteria can pass from an infected female arthropod (like a tick or mite) to her offspring via the eggs. - This ensures that the next generation of vectors is already infected and can transmit the disease, even without needing to acquire the pathogen from an infected vertebrate host. *Malaria* - Malaria is transmitted via the bite of an infected **Anopheles mosquito**, which acquires parasites from an infected human. - **Transovarian transmission** does not occur in malaria; mosquitoes are not born with the ability to transmit the parasite. *Filaria* - Filariasis is spread by various **mosquito vectors** (e.g., *Culex*, *Anopheles*, *Aedes*) or **black flies**, which acquire microfilariae from an infected host during a blood meal. - The parasite undergoes development within the insect, but **transovarian transmission** to the insect's offspring does not occur. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **rickettsial diseases** do exhibit transovarian transmission, making it a valid answer. - The phenomenon of passing pathogens directly from a female parent to her offspring via the egg is a specific mechanism seen in certain vector-borne diseases.

Question 756: What is the primary method of primordial prevention for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

A. Lifestyle change (Correct Answer)
B. Coronary bypass
C. Treatment of CAD
D. Screening for hypertension

Explanation: ***Lifestyle change*** - **Primordial prevention** aims to prevent the development of risk factors themselves, which is best achieved through promoting healthy behaviors like diet, exercise, and avoiding tobacco at the population level. - This approach acts *before* the onset of risk factors, addressing societal and environmental determinants of health. - Examples include promoting healthy eating habits in schools, creating walkable communities, and tobacco-free environments. *Coronary bypass* - **Coronary bypass surgery** is a treatment for established CAD with significant blockages, not a preventive measure. - It falls under the category of **tertiary prevention**, aiming to reduce complications and improve quality of life in existing disease. *Treatment of CAD* - **Treating CAD** (e.g., medications like statins or antiplatelets, procedures like angioplasty) is a form of **secondary** or **tertiary prevention**. - It focuses on managing existing disease or preventing its progression, rather than preventing the initial development of risk factors. *Screening for hypertension* - **Screening** is a form of **secondary prevention** aimed at early detection of risk factors or disease. - While important, it occurs *after* risk factors have already developed, unlike primordial prevention which prevents risk factors from emerging.

Internal Medicine

1 questions

Q751

What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?

Microbiology

1 questions

Q751

Maximum density of microfilariae in blood is reported to be between -

Obstetrics and Gynecology

2 questions

Q751

Which condition is responsible for approximately a quarter of postnatal maternal deaths?

Q752

Which of the following is a method of natural family planning that involves tracking basal body temperature?

NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 751: Which condition is responsible for approximately a quarter of postnatal maternal deaths?

A. Eclampsia
B. Anemia
C. Infection
D. Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)*** - **Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)** is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide, accounting for roughly a quarter of all postnatal maternal deaths. - PPH is defined as a blood loss of **500 mL or more** within 24 hours after vaginal birth, or **1000 mL or more** after a Cesarean section, and can lead to hypovolemic shock and death if not promptly managed. *Infection* - **Maternal infections**, such as puerperal sepsis, are a significant cause of maternal mortality but typically rank after PPH in overall incidence. - While infections contribute to postnatal deaths, they do not account for as high a proportion as PPH. *Eclampsia* - **Eclampsia** is a severe complication of pre-eclampsia, characterized by seizures, and is a major cause of maternal mortality and morbidity. - Though serious, its contribution to overall maternal deaths, while substantial, is less than that of PPH globally. *Anemia* - **Anemia** in the postpartum period can exacerbate other complications and increase the risk of maternal morbidity, but it is rarely a direct cause of maternal death on its own. - Severe anemia can lower the threshold for adverse outcomes from blood loss or infection but is not a primary cause of death at the same rate as PPH.

Question 752: Which of the following is a method of natural family planning that involves tracking basal body temperature?

A. Coitus interruptus (withdrawal method)
B. Safe period (calendar method)
C. Basal body temperature (BBT) method (Correct Answer)
D. Abstinence (not having sexual intercourse)

Explanation: ***Basal body temperature (BBT) method*** - The **basal body temperature** (BBT) method relies on a slight increase in a woman's resting body temperature, typically by 0.5 to 1.0°F, occurring after **ovulation**. - This temperature shift signals that ovulation has occurred, allowing couples to identify the **fertile window** and avoid intercourse during that time. - This method involves tracking daily basal body temperature to predict ovulation. *Coitus interruptus (withdrawal method)* - This method involves the male withdrawing his penis from the vagina just before **ejaculation**. - It does not involve tracking **basal body temperature** and has a higher failure rate compared to many other contraceptive methods due to potential pre-ejaculatory fluid containing sperm. *Safe period (calendar method)* - The calendar method, also known as the **rhythm method** or **Ogino-Knaus method**, estimates the fertile window based on the typical length of a woman's menstrual cycles. - This method relies on calculating the approximate times of ovulation and avoiding intercourse during those days; it does not involve daily **temperature tracking**. *Abstinence (not having sexual intercourse)* - **Abstinence** involves completely refraining from sexual intercourse and is the only 100% effective method of preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). - This method does not involve any form of physical tracking, such as **basal body temperature**, as there is no risk of conception.