NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?

200mg. ***200mg*** - The standard dose of **mifepristone** for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is **200mg orally**. - This dose is typically followed 24-48 hours later by a **prostaglandin analog** (e.g., misoprostol) to complete the termination process. *10mg* - This dose is significantly lower than the recommended therapeutic dose for medical abortion. - Such a low dose would likely be **ineffective** in achieving termination. *20 mg* - This dose is also much lower than the standard therapeutic recommendation. - It would not adequately block progesterone receptors to initiate the termination process effectively. *100mg* - While closer to the standard dose, 100mg is still considered **sub-therapeutic** for many individuals undergoing medical abortion. - A lower efficacy rate would be expected compared to the 200mg dose.

Q: USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to?

Renal pathway obstruction. ***Renal pathway obstruction*** - **Oligohydramnios** (low amniotic fluid) in the late second or third trimester is often caused by conditions that impair fetal urine production or outflow. - **Renal pathway obstruction** (e.g., posterior urethral valves, bilateral renal agenesis) prevents the fetus from producing or excreting sufficient urine, a primary source of amniotic fluid. *Gastrointestinal obstruction* - **Gastrointestinal obstruction** is more commonly associated with **polyhydramnios** because it impairs the fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid. - Inability to swallow leads to an *accumulation* of amniotic fluid, not a reduction. *Anencephaly* - **Anencephaly** is typically associated with **polyhydramnios** due to impaired swallowing of amniotic fluid. - The exposed brain tissue can also lead to increased fluid transudation. *Neuromuscular disorder* - **Neuromuscular disorders** can cause **polyhydramnios** if they lead to impaired fetal swallowing due to muscle weakness. - If a neuromuscular disorder affects the renal system, it could potentially cause oligohydramnios, but it is not the primary cause of oligohydramnios itself.

Q: What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?

Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate). ***Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate)*** - **Progestin therapy** is the first-line treatment for simple endometrial hyperplasia because it counteracts the unopposed estrogen effect causing the hyperplasia. - **Progestins** lead to endometrial atrophy and shedding, helping to reverse the hyperplastic changes and prevent progression to cancer. *Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)* - **Estrogen therapy** without concomitant progestins would exacerbate endometrial hyperplasia by further stimulating endometrial growth. - This treatment is contraindicated in cases of endometrial hyperplasia unless carefully balanced with progestins. *Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)* - **Endometrial ablation** is a destructive procedure to remove the endometrial lining and is typically considered for persistent abnormal uterine bleeding, not as a primary treatment for simple hyperplasia. - It is often reserved for patients who have completed childbearing and fail medical management. *Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)* - A **total abdominal hysterectomy** is an invasive surgical procedure that is generally reserved for complex or atypical endometrial hyperplasia, or hyperplasia that is recurrent and unresponsive to medical management. - It is not the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia, especially in patients who may desire future fertility or wish to avoid major surgery.

Q: What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?

15 kg. ***15 kg*** - While the specific weight can vary based on the bone and patient, 10-15 kg is generally the **maximum recommended weight for skeletal traction** in adults to avoid complications. - Applying too much weight risks **damage to the bone, soft tissues, and nerves**, as well as potential pin site infections and neurovascular compromise. *5 kg* - This weight is typically more appropriate for **skin traction**, where the pulling force is applied externally to the skin, limiting the amount of weight that can be safely used without causing skin damage. - In skeletal traction, 5 kg is often used for **initial alignment or very tenuous fractures**, but it is generally insufficient for significant reduction or long-term stabilization. *10 kg* - 10 kg is a common starting point or moderate weight used in skeletal traction, particularly for **femur or tibia fractures**. - While often effective, it is not consistently the maximum safe weight, as some situations may allow or require slightly more weight up to 15 kg for optimal reduction. *20 kg* - Applying 20 kg of weight in skeletal traction is generally considered **excessive and dangerous** in most adult applications. - This high amount of weight significantly increases the risk of **pin loosening, osteomyelitis, neurovascular injury, and avascular necrosis**, especially in areas like the cervical spine or tibia.

Q: Which drug would be most appropriate for treating a patient with suspected chlamydia-gonorrhea coinfection?

Doxycycline. ***Doxycycline*** - **Doxycycline** is a highly effective treatment for **chlamydia**, and its broad-spectrum activity also covers potential **gonorrhea coinfection** when used as part of a dual therapy regimen. - It is often prescribed alongside a **single dose of ceftriaxone** for presumed gonorrhea coinfection, as ceftriaxone targets gonorrhea while doxycycline targets chlamydia. *Ciprofloxacin* - **Ciprofloxacin** is a **fluoroquinolone** antibiotic, which is generally not recommended as first-line treatment for uncomplicated **gonorrhea** or **chlamydia** due to increasing resistance. - It has activity against *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, but its effectiveness against *Chlamydia trachomatis* is suboptimal compared to macrolides or tetracyclines. *Norfloxacin* - **Norfloxacin** is another **fluoroquinolone** with a narrower spectrum of activity than ciprofloxacin and is primarily used for **urinary tract infections**. - It has **poor efficacy against chlamydia** and is not a recommended treatment for either organism in this context. *Nalidixic acid* - **Nalidixic acid** is a first-generation **quinolone** with a very limited spectrum, used mainly for **gram-negative urinary tract infections**. - It has **no significant activity against chlamydia** or gonorrhea and is therefore inappropriate for treating this suspected coinfection.

Q: Which drug is most commonly associated with causing exanthema?

Sulfonamide. ***Sulfonamide*** - **Sulfonamides** are among the **most common causes** of drug-induced exanthema (maculopapular/morbilliform rash). - They account for a significant proportion of cutaneous adverse drug reactions, with exanthema being the most frequent presentation. - The mechanism typically involves a **delayed hypersensitivity reaction** (Type IV) to the drug or its metabolites. - **Classic presentation:** Symmetrical, erythematous, maculopapular rash appearing 7-14 days after drug initiation. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** can cause exanthematous eruptions, but it is more notably associated with **severe cutaneous adverse reactions** such as: - **DRESS syndrome** (Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms) - **Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)** and **Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)** - While exanthema can occur, **sulfonamides** are more frequently implicated in simple morbilliform rashes. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an anticholinergic agent primarily causing **predictable pharmacological effects**: - Dry mouth, mydriasis, tachycardia, urinary retention - **Allergic skin reactions** with atropine are rare and not a characteristic adverse effect. - Atropine is **not recognized** as a common cause of exanthema. *All of the options* - This is incorrect because **atropine** is not commonly associated with exanthema. - While both sulfonamides and phenytoin can cause exanthema, only **sulfonamides** are considered among the **most common** causes.

Q: The mechanism by which ergometrine stops postpartum hemorrhage is that it:

Increases tone of uterine muscle. ***Increases tone of uterine muscle*** - **Ergometrine** is an **ergot alkaloid** that directly stimulates **uterine smooth muscle contractions**. - These sustained contractions lead to **compression of blood vessels within the myometrium**, thereby reducing blood flow and controlling **postpartum hemorrhage**. *Causes vasoconstriction of uterine arteries* - While ergometrine does have some generalized **vasoconstrictive effects**, its primary mechanism of action in controlling postpartum hemorrhage is not mainly through direct vasoconstriction of large uterine arteries. - The crucial effect is the **sustained uterine contraction** which mechanically occludes blood vessels, rather than chemical constriction of the vessels themselves. *Induces platelet aggregation* - Ergometrine does not primarily act by inducing **platelet aggregation**; this is a function of specific clotting factors and platelet activators. - Its therapeutic effect against hemorrhage is mediated through its action on **uterine contractility**, not on the cellular components of coagulation. *Promotes coagulation* - Ergometrine does not directly promote the **coagulation cascade** or enhance the formation of fibrin clots. - Its mechanism of action is distinct from agents that affect intrinsic or extrinsic pathways of coagulation.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of neurosis?

Personality disturbances. ***Personality disturbances*** - While neurosis can cause significant distress and impact functioning, it does not typically involve **fundamental alterations in personality structure or identity**. - **Personality disorders**, not neuroses, are characterized by deeply ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive patterns of perceiving, thinking, and behaving that deviate markedly from cultural expectations. *Symptoms cause subjective distress* - A core characteristic of neurosis is that the individual experiences significant **emotional suffering** and discomfort due to their symptoms, such as anxiety, phobias, or obsessions. - This **subjective distress** is often a primary motivator for seeking treatment. *Contact with reality preserved* - Individuals with neurosis maintain their ability to **distinguish between internal experiences and external reality**, unlike in psychosis where this distinction is lost. - They may understand that their fears or anxieties are irrational, but they are unable to control them. *Insight is maintained* - People with neurosis generally have some level of **awareness** that they have a problem or that their symptoms are unreasonable or excessive. - This **insight** allows them to recognize the need for help and engage in therapeutic processes.

Q: In stupor catatonia, all are seen except -

Agitation. ***Agitation*** - **Stuporous catatonia** is characterized by a significant reduction or absence of motor activity and responsiveness, making **agitation**—increased motor activity—an unlikely feature. - In such a state, the patient is typically rigid, immobile, and unresponsive to external stimuli, which is the antithesis of agitation. *Catalepsy* - **Catalepsy** refers to a trance-like state with a loss of voluntary motion and active posturing, where the limbs maintain any position in which they are placed (waxy flexibility). - This is a hallmark feature of **catatonic stupor**, indicating a profound disturbance in motor control. *Mutism* - **Mutism** is the absence or profound reduction of speech, which is a common and defining feature of **catatonic stupor**. - Patients in a stuporous state typically do not speak or respond verbally to questions or commands. *Akinesia* - **Akinesia** is the absence of movement, or pronounced difficulty in initiating voluntary movements, which is a key component of **catatonic stupor**. - Patients exhibit severe motor retardation, often appearing frozen or rigid.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder?

Unstable interpersonal relationship. ***Unstable interpersonal relationship*** - A core feature of **borderline personality disorder (BPD)** is a pattern of intense and unstable relationships, often characterized by idealization and devaluation. - Individuals with BPD struggle with a **fear of abandonment**, leading to desperate efforts to avoid real or imagined separation. *Excessive need for admiration* - This is a hallmark feature of **narcissistic personality disorder**, where individuals consistently seek praise and attention. - In BPD, the need is more focused on affirmation and avoiding abandonment rather than pure admiration. *Grandiosity* - **Grandiosity** is a defining characteristic of **narcissistic personality disorder**, involving an exaggerated sense of self-importance and superiority. - While individuals with BPD may have an unstable sense of self-worth, grandiosity is not a primary or consistent feature. *Low self esteem* - While individuals with BPD often experience **low self-esteem** and feelings of worthlessness, this is a symptom present in many mental health conditions and is not specific enough to characterize BPD alone. - The more defining features relate to **identity disturbance**, **affective instability**, and **impulsivity**.

Question 1

What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?

Accepted Answer

200mg

Answer

10mg

Answer

20mg

Answer

100mg

Question 2

USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to?

Accepted Answer

Renal pathway obstruction

Answer

Neuromuscular disorder

Answer

Gastrointestinal obstruction

Answer

Anencephaly

Question 3

What is the first-line treatment for simple hyperplasia of the endometrium?

Accepted Answer

Progestin therapy (e.g., Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

Answer

Endometrial ablation (surgical procedure)

Answer

Estrogen therapy (e.g., Estradiol)

Answer

Total abdominal hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)

Question 4

What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?

Accepted Answer

15 kg

Answer

5 kg

Answer

10 kg

Answer

20 kg

Question 5

Which drug would be most appropriate for treating a patient with suspected chlamydia-gonorrhea coinfection?

Accepted Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Ciprofloxacin

Answer

Nalidixic acid

Answer

Norfloxacin

Question 6

Which drug is most commonly associated with causing exanthema?

Accepted Answer

Sulfonamide

Answer

Atropine

Answer

Phenytoin

Answer

All of the options

Question 7

The mechanism by which ergometrine stops postpartum hemorrhage is that it:

Accepted Answer

Increases tone of uterine muscle

Answer

Induces platelet aggregation

Answer

Promotes coagulation

Answer

Causes vasoconstriction of uterine arteries

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a feature of neurosis?

Accepted Answer

Personality disturbances

Answer

Symptoms cause subjective distress

Answer

Contact with reality preserved

Answer

Insight is maintained

Question 9

In stupor catatonia, all are seen except -

Accepted Answer

Agitation

Answer

Mutism

Answer

Akinesia

Answer

Catalepsy

Question 10

Which of the following is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder?

Accepted Answer

Unstable interpersonal relationship

Answer

Grandiosity

Answer

Low self esteem

Answer

Excessive need for admiration

NEET-PG 2013

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pharmacology

Psychiatry