NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What is the bispinous diameter?

10.5 cm. ***10.5 cm*** - The **bispinous (interspinous) diameter** is the transverse diameter of the midpelvis, measured between the two ischial spines. [1] - A measurement of **10.5 cm** is the average and normal length for this diameter. [1] - This is the **narrowest diameter of the pelvis** and represents a critical measurement during labor, as it is the narrowest point through which the fetal head must pass. [1] *11.5 cm* - This measurement is typically associated with the **obstetric conjugate** at the pelvic inlet, not the midpelvis. - The bispinous diameter, being the narrowest transverse diameter of the pelvis, is normally shorter than 11.5 cm. *12 cm* - A 12 cm measurement is too wide for the **bispinous diameter**. - The **transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet** is approximately 13 cm, and the **transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet** is about 11 cm, but neither of these is the bispinous diameter. *11 cm* - While 11 cm is close, it is slightly larger than the typical average for the **bispinous diameter** of 10.5 cm. - The **transverse diameter of the outlet** is approximately 11 cm [2], but this is a different measurement at a different level of the pelvis.

Q: Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?

Desflurane. **Desflurane** - **Desflurane** has the highest **global warming potential (GWP)** among commonly used volatile anesthetics, primarily due to its long atmospheric half-life and potent infrared absorption. - Its environmental impact is also amplified by its high **minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)** and low blood solubility, requiring higher delivered concentrations for anesthesia. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** has a lower GWP compared to desflurane and is less commonly used in modern practice. - While it contributes to the greenhouse effect, its impact is significantly less than that of desflurane due to differences in chemical structure and atmospheric persistence. *Sevoflurane* - **Sevoflurane** has a relatively low GWP and a short atmospheric half-life compared to desflurane, making it a more environmentally friendly option among volatile anesthetics. - Although it still contributes to atmospheric warming, its overall environmental impact is considerably less than desflurane's. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is a potent greenhouse gas but is no longer used in many parts of the world due to concerns about hepatotoxicity and its significant ozone-depleting potential. - While it contributes to atmospheric warming, its current lack of clinical use limits its ongoing contribution to the greenhouse effect compared to currently utilized agents.

Q: Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?

Crohn's disease. ***Crohn's disease*** - Wireless capsule endoscopy is primarily used to visualize the **small bowel**, which is the main site of involvement in Crohn's disease [3]. - It helps detect **mucosal inflammation**, ulcers, and strictures that may not be accessible by conventional endoscopy [1]. *Esophageal varices* - **Esophageal varices** are best visualized and treated with conventional **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)**, which allows for direct intervention [2]. - Capsule endoscopy is not the preferred method due to its inability to adequately distend the esophagus or perform therapeutic maneuvers [4]. *Gastric carcinoma* - Diagnosing **gastric carcinoma** requires visualization of the stomach lining, typically achieved through **conventional upper endoscopy** with biopsies [2]. - The capsule may pass too quickly through the stomach or miss subtle lesions, and it cannot obtain tissue samples. *Ulcerative colitis* - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the **colon**, which is visualized using a **colonoscopy** [3]. - While capsule endoscopy can visualize the small bowel, it is not effective for examining the colon due to insufficient imaging of the entire large intestine and lack of biopsy capabilities.

Q: All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:

Brain. ***Brain*** - The **brain** is not a common site for primary bone metastasis, as bone metastases typically originate from organs like the **breast**, **lung**, and **prostate**. - While brain tumors can metastasize to bone, the reverse (primary bone cancer) occurring here is rare. *Breast* - Breast cancer is one of the **most prevalent sources** of bone metastases, commonly affecting the spine and pelvis. - Symptoms often include **bone pain** and potential fractures due to metastasis. *Brain* - Similar to , while brain tumors can metastasize, **primary cancers** do not commonly originate in the bone. - The **metastatic spread** to the brain from other primary sites is common, but not the other way around. *Breast* - Again, breast cancer commonly leads to **bone metastasis**, accounting for a significant percentage of these cases. - It is important to identify busy metastasis to **manage** symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

Q: A patient presents with a history of vaginal prolapse and a painful ulcer on the prolapsed tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Decubitus ulcer. ***Decubitus ulcer*** - A **decubitus ulcer** (pressure sore) is the most likely diagnosis when a patient with a **vaginal prolapse** develops a **painful ulcer** on the prolapsed tissue due to chronic pressure and friction. - The prolapsed tissue is often exposed to constant irritation and lack of proper blood supply, making it susceptible to ulceration. *Carcinoma* - While possible, carcinoma typically presents as a **non-healing lesion** with irregular borders and induration, and is often *not immediately painful* in its early stages. - A definitive diagnosis of carcinoma requires **biopsy and histopathological examination**. *Pressure erosion* - This term is a general description of tissue damage from pressure and can be a precursor to a decubitus ulcer, but **decubitus ulcer** specifically denotes the developed lesion. - It describes the *mechanism of injury* rather than the specific, fully formed ulcer. *Syphilis* - Syphilis causes a **chancre**, which is typically a *painless ulcer* with indurated borders. - It is a sexually transmitted infection, and while it could cause an ulcer, the context of a **vaginal prolapse** points more strongly to a localized pressure injury.

Q: Bonney's test is used to determine which of the following?

Urinary incontinence due to stress. ***Urinary incontinence due to stress*** - **Bonney's test** is specifically designed to assess whether a patient's **stress urinary incontinence** is correctable by elevating the urethrovesical junction. - A positive result, where urine leakage stops with elevation, suggests that surgical correction to support the urethra may be beneficial. *Uterine prolapse* - While related to pelvic floor dysfunction, **uterine prolapse** is assessed by clinical examination for descent of the uterus, not specifically with Bonney's test. - Its presence is determined by visible or palpable protrusion of the cervix or uterus through the vaginal opening. *Vesicovaginal fistula* - A **vesicovaginal fistula** involves an abnormal connection between the bladder and vagina, leading to continuous urine leakage. - This condition is typically diagnosed using dye tests (e.g., tampon test) or cystoscopy, not Bonney's test. *Ureteric fistula* - A **ureteric fistula** is an abnormal connection involving the ureter, often resulting in continuous urine leakage outside the normal urinary tract. - Diagnosis usually involves imaging studies like IV urography or CT urogram, as Bonney's test is not relevant for this condition.

Q: Which hormone is known to be elevated in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?

Luteinizing Hormone (LH). ***Luteinizing Hormone (LH)*** - In **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, there is often an elevated **Luteinizing Hormone (LH)** level, leading to an increased **LH:FSH ratio**. - This high LH level contributes to **increased androgen production** by the ovaries, a key feature of PCOS. *FSH* - **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** levels are typically normal or even low in PCOS, contributing to the **imbalance with LH**. - This relative deficiency of FSH impairs proper **follicle maturation**, leading to anovulation and cyst formation. *Estrogen* - While **estrogen** levels can be normal or slightly elevated due to peripheral conversion of androgens, they are not primarily responsible for the characteristic hormonal imbalance in PCOS. - The elevated **androgens** in PCOS are converted to estrogen in adipose tissue, but this is a secondary effect. *TSH* - **Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)** is involved in thyroid function and is generally unrelated to the **pathophysiology of PCOS**, although thyroid disorders can co-exist with PCOS. - Elevated TSH suggests **hypothyroidism**, a distinct endocrine condition that would present with different symptoms.

Q: Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?

Kyphosis. **Kyphosis** * **Halopelvic traction** is a technique specifically designed to apply sustained corrective forces to the spine, making it particularly effective in treating severe **kyphosis**, especially in young patients prior to surgical correction. * It aids in gradually stretching soft tissues and straightening the spinal curvature over time, often used in cases of congenital or severe developmental kyphosis. *Scoliosis* * While traction can be used in some spinal deformities, **scoliosis** (lateral curvature) is more commonly treated with **bracing** or **surgical fusion**, as halopelvic traction is less effective in correcting the rotational component. * Correction of scoliotic curves typically involves forces applied in multiple planes, which halopelvic traction is not ideally suited for. *Spondylolisthesis* * **Spondylolisthesis** involves the **slippage of one vertebra over another**, which is primarily managed through **stabilization** to prevent further slippage. * Halopelvic traction is not indicated as it could potentially exacerbate instability in the presence of vertebral slippage. *Spinal stenosis* * **Spinal stenosis** refers to the **narrowing of the spinal canal**, which compresses nerves and is usually treated with **decompressive surgery** or **conservative management** for pain relief. * Traction methods are generally not used for spinal stenosis as they do not address the underlying anatomical narrowing and may worsen symptoms.

Q: According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?

1 month. ***1 month*** - According to **DSM-5 criteria**, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting more than **1 day** but less than **1 month**. - If psychotic symptoms persist for **1 month or longer**, it indicates a different diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder or schizophrenia, requiring further evaluation. *1 week* - While psychotic symptoms may be present for 1 week in brief psychotic disorder, this duration is within the disorder's diagnostic window but not its defining upper limit. - The key differentiator for brief psychotic disorder is that symptoms resolve within **1 month**. *2 weeks* - Similar to 1 week, 2 weeks is a duration that can occur within brief psychotic disorder, but it does not represent the minimum duration that distinguishes it from longer-term conditions. - The crucial threshold for duration in brief psychotic disorder is **less than 1 month**. *3 weeks* - Three weeks also falls within the diagnostic duration for brief psychotic disorder. - The essential criteria specify that psychotic symptoms must last **less than 1 month** to be classified as brief psychotic disorder.

Q: Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?

Visual symptoms. ***Visual symptoms*** - **Visual symptoms** is NOT a separate diagnostic category in DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder criteria. - While visual symptoms (such as **double vision** or **blindness**) ARE part of the diagnostic criteria, they fall under the **pseudoneurological symptom** category, not as a distinct standalone category. - The DSM-IV-TR required **one pseudoneurological symptom** (which could include visual, motor, sensory symptoms, or seizures), but did not list "visual symptoms" as one of the four main symptom categories. *Sexual symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for somatization disorder explicitly included **sexual symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **one sexual symptom** was required (such as sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, irregular menses, or painful intercourse). *Pain symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **pain symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - The criteria required **four pain symptoms** occurring in at least four different sites or functions (e.g., head, abdomen, back, joints, chest). *GI symptom* - The DSM-IV-TR criteria included **gastrointestinal symptoms** as one of the four main categories. - At least **two gastrointestinal symptoms** were required (such as nausea, bloating, vomiting other than during pregnancy, or diarrhea). **Key Point:** The four DSM-IV-TR symptom categories for somatization disorder were: (1) Pain, (2) Gastrointestinal, (3) Sexual, and (4) Pseudoneurological—NOT "visual symptoms" as a separate category.

Question 1

What is the bispinous diameter?

Accepted Answer

10.5 cm

Answer

11.5 cm

Answer

12 cm

Answer

11 cm

Question 2

Which anaesthetic drug contributes to green house effect?

Accepted Answer

Desflurane

Answer

Enflurane

Answer

Sevoflurane

Answer

Halothane

Question 3

Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?

Accepted Answer

Crohn's disease

Answer

Esophageal varices

Answer

Gastric carcinoma

Answer

Ulcerative colitis

Question 4

All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:

Accepted Answer

Brain

Answer

Prostate

Answer

Lung

Answer

Thyroid

Question 5

A patient presents with a history of vaginal prolapse and a painful ulcer on the prolapsed tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Decubitus ulcer

Answer

Carcinoma

Answer

Pressure erosion

Answer

Syphilis

Question 6

Bonney's test is used to determine which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Urinary incontinence due to stress

Answer

Uterine prolapse

Answer

Vesicovaginal fistula

Answer

Ureteric fistula

Question 7

Which hormone is known to be elevated in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?

Accepted Answer

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Answer

FSH

Answer

Estrogen

Answer

TSH

Question 8

Halopelvic traction is primarily used for correcting which specific spinal deformity?

Accepted Answer

Kyphosis

Answer

Spondylolisthesis

Answer

Scoliosis

Answer

Spinal stenosis

Question 9

According to DSM-5 criteria, symptoms of brief psychotic disorder must resolve within what time period to differentiate it from longer-term psychotic conditions like schizophreniform disorder?

Accepted Answer

1 month

Answer

1 week

Answer

3 weeks

Answer

2 weeks

Question 10

Which of the following symptoms is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV-TR somatization disorder?

Accepted Answer

Visual symptoms

Answer

Sexual symptom

Answer

Pain symptom

Answer

GI symptom

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry