NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Nikolsky's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?

Pemphigus. ***Pemphigus*** - **Nikolsky's sign** is the **most characteristic and consistent** clinical finding in pemphigus, where slight lateral pressure on seemingly normal skin near a blister or erosion causes the epidermis to shear off, forming a new blister or denudation. - This sign indicates **intraepidermal blistering** due to the loss of cell adhesion (acantholysis) caused by autoantibodies against desmoglein proteins. - **Pemphigus is the classic condition** associated with a positive Nikolsky's sign in medical literature and examinations. *Herpes zoster* - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is characterized by painful, vesicular eruptions in a **dermatomal distribution**, which do **not exhibit Nikolsky's sign**. - The vesicles in herpes zoster are **intraepidermal** but result from viral cytopathic effect, not acantholysis, and the roof of the vesicle remains intact with lateral pressure. *Bullous impetigo* - Bullous impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by *Staphylococcus aureus* that produces **large, flaccid blisters**. - While **Nikolsky's sign can occasionally be positive** in bullous impetigo (particularly in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome), it is **much less consistent and prominent** compared to pemphigus. - The key distinction is that pemphigus remains the **most characteristic association** with Nikolsky's sign in clinical practice and examinations. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because Nikolsky's sign is **most specifically and consistently associated with pemphigus**. - While bullous impetigo may occasionally show Nikolsky's sign, **pemphigus is the classic answer** for this clinical finding in medical examinations.

Q: Which of the following causes non-cicatricial alopecia?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Tinea capitis**, **SLE** (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus), and **Alopecia areata** all can cause **non-cicatricial alopecia**. - **Non-cicatricial alopecia** refers to hair loss where the hair follicle is not permanently destroyed, and hair regrowth is possible, leaving no scarring. *Tinea capitis* - This is a **fungal infection** of the scalp that causes hair shafts to break, leading to patches of hair loss. - While it can lead to inflammation, it typically does not cause permanent destruction of the hair follicle unless severe and untreated, thus being predominantly **non-cicatricial**. *SLE* - Hair loss in **SLE** can occur due to various mechanisms, including diffuse thinning, patchy alopecia, or the characteristic "**lupus hair**" (fragile hairs around the hairline). - This type of hair loss is usually **non-scarring** and reversible, although discoid lupus erythematosus often causes scarring alopecia. *Alopecia areata* - This is an **autoimmune condition** characterized by patchy, sudden hair loss on the scalp or other body parts. - The hair follicles are attacked by the immune system but are not destroyed, making the condition largely **non-cicatricial** and potentially reversible.

Q: What is the expected rate of turnover of amniotic fluid in a pregnant woman?

500 cc/h. ***500 cc/h*** - The **amniotic fluid** undergoes a rapid and continuous turnover, with approximately **500 cc/h** being exchanged through multiple pathways. - This dynamic process ensures the constant renewal of the fluid, maintaining its critical functions for fetal development and protection. *1L/hr* - A turnover rate of 1 liter per hour is **higher than the physiological range** for normal amniotic fluid dynamics. - Such a high rate would imply an **abnormal fluid exchange**, potentially leading to imbalances. *1500 cc/h* - This rate represents an **extremely high turnover**, significantly exceeding the typical physiological exchange. - Sustained rates this high are **not consistent with normal amniotic fluid physiology** and could indicate underlying pathology. *2L/h* - A turnover rate of 2 liters per hour is **dangerously high** and far beyond the normal capacity for amniotic fluid exchange. - Such a rapid turnover would be **detrimental to fetal well-being** and is not observed in healthy pregnancies.

Q: Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

10-20 times. ***10-20 times*** - Colposcopes typically provide magnification in the range of **10 to 20 times** to allow for detailed examination of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. - This magnification level is sufficient to identify changes in the **epithelium**, such as those associated with dysplasia or cancer. *1-2 times* - A magnification of 1-2 times is very low and would not be adequate for **detailed visualization** of the cervix and its microscopic changes. - This range is more akin to **naked eye** observation or a simple magnifying glass, insufficient for colposcopic purposes. *5-6 times* - While 5-6 times magnification offers some detail, it is generally **insufficient** for the precise identification of subtle epithelial changes or abnormal vascular patterns characteristic of dysplasia. - Most colposcopes are designed to provide higher magnification to enhance diagnostic accuracy. *15-25 times* - While some advanced colposcopes might offer magnification up to 25 times, the standard and most commonly used range is **10-20 times**. - Magnification significantly beyond 20 times can sometimes lead to a **smaller field of view** and increased difficulty in focusing, making it less practical for routine examination.

Q: On which day LH & FSH should be measured?

1-3rd day. ***1-3rd day*** - Measuring **LH** (Luteinizing Hormone) and **FSH** (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) on cycle days 1-3 provides a baseline assessment of **ovarian reserve** and pituitary function. - At this early follicular phase, hormone levels are relatively stable and reflect the intrinsic **gonadal feedback** mechanisms before significant follicular development begins. *7th day* - By day 7, **follicular development** is usually well underway, and FSH levels might be decreasing as a dominant follicle is selected. - Measuring hormones on this day would not provide an accurate baseline assessment, as the levels are already influenced by **follicular growth**. *14th day* - Day 14 is often associated with the **LH surge** that triggers ovulation, making it unsuitable for a baseline assessment of ovarian reserve. - FSH levels would also be significantly different from the early follicular phase due to the ongoing **ovarian cycle events**. *10th day* - On day 10, **estrogen levels** are typically rising, which would already be providing negative feedback to the pituitary, affecting FSH and LH levels. - This timing would not be ideal for assessing baseline hormone levels for **fertility evaluations**.

Q: Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus is:

Ulnar nerve. ***Ulnar nerve*** - The **ulnar nerve** runs directly behind the **medial epicondyle** of the humerus in a groove called the **cubital tunnel**, making it highly vulnerable to injury during fractures of this bony prominence. - Injury to the ulnar nerve at this location can cause symptoms like **numbness and tingling** in the **little finger and half of the ring finger**, **weakness in certain hand muscles**, and eventually a **"claw hand" deformity**. *Radial nerve* - The **radial nerve** courses along the posterior aspect of the humerus in the **spiral groove** and is more commonly injured with **mid-shaft humeral fractures**. - Injury typically results in **wrist drop** and **sensory loss over the dorsum of the hand**. *Median nerve* - The **median nerve** travels more anteriorly in the arm and forearm and is most commonly injured with **supracondylar fractures of the humerus** or **carpal tunnel syndrome** at the wrist. - Damage leads to **ape hand deformity** and sensory deficits over the **thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger**. *Musculocutaneous nerve* - The **musculocutaneous nerve** innervates the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles and provides sensation to the lateral forearm; it is **less commonly injured in elbow fractures**. - Injury would primarily affect **elbow flexion** and **sensation over the lateral forearm**, which is not the typical presentation for medial epicondyle fractures.

Q: Bunion is commonly seen at ?

Great toe MTP joint. ***Great toe MTP joint*** - A bunion, or **hallux valgus**, is a bump that forms on the outside of the **first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint** of the big toe. - This common foot deformity involves structural changes that result in the big toe pointing towards the smaller toes. *Medial malleolus* - The medial malleolus is the bony prominence on the **inside of the ankle**. - It is part of the tibia and forms the inner wall of the ankle joint, not typically where bunions occur. *Lateral Malleolus* - The lateral malleolus is the bony protrusion on the **outside of the ankle**. - It is part of the fibula and forms the outer wall of the ankle joint, unrelated to bunion formation. *Shin of tibia* - The shin refers to the **anterior crest of the tibia**, the large bone in the lower leg. - This area is prone to conditions like shin splints or fractures, but not bunions.

Q: Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?

Androgenic complete mole. ***Androgenic complete mole*** - A **complete hydatidiform mole** is characterized by the absence of maternal genetic material and a **purely paternal genetic origin** (androgenesis). - This typically results from the **fertilization of an 'empty' egg** by either two haploid sperm or one diploid sperm. *Turner's syndrome* - This condition is a **chromosomal disorder** in females where one of the two X chromosomes is missing or incomplete (45, X0). - It is not associated with androgenesis but rather with the **absence of a functionally complete X chromosome**. *Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)* - PCOS is an **endocrine disorder** characterized by **hormonal imbalance** (high androgens), ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries. - It involves maternal and paternal genetic contributions in a normal diploid set and is not related to androgenesis. *Androgenic partial mole* - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically involves **triploidy**, where there are two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes (e.g., 69, XXX or 69, XXY). - While it involves extra paternal genetic material, it is not purely paternal in origin, as a **maternal haploid set is also present**.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of cocaine withdrawal symptoms?

No specific drug. ***No specific drug*** - Currently, there is **no FDA-approved pharmacotherapy** for the treatment of cocaine withdrawal symptoms or for preventing relapse in cocaine dependence. - Management primarily focuses on **supportive care**, **psychotherapy** (cognitive behavioral therapy, contingency management), and addressing **co-occurring mental health disorders**. - Unlike alcohol or opioid withdrawal, cocaine withdrawal is not life-threatening and does not require specific medication. *Fluoxetine* - Fluoxetine is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** primarily used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. - While depression can be a symptom of cocaine withdrawal, fluoxetine has **not been shown to be effective** for reducing cocaine use or treating cocaine withdrawal specifically. - Multiple clinical trials have failed to demonstrate benefit for cocaine dependence treatment. *Antidepressants* - While various antidepressants (including desipramine, bupropion) have been investigated, there is **no strong evidence** to support their routine use as primary treatment for cocaine withdrawal or dependence. - Their effectiveness in this context is **limited and inconsistent** across studies. - They may be used to treat **co-occurring depressive disorders** but not as primary cocaine withdrawal treatment. *Benzodiazepines* - Benzodiazepines are primarily used to manage **acute anxiety and seizures** during withdrawal from GABAergic substances like **alcohol and sedatives**. - They are generally **not recommended** for cocaine withdrawal as cocaine withdrawal does not cause seizures or dangerous autonomic instability. - May be used only for **severe agitation** or **co-occurring alcohol withdrawal**, but carry their own dependence potential and do not address cocaine withdrawal itself.

Q: What is the standard radiation dose to point A in the cervix for brachytherapy in the treatment of cervical cancer?

8000 rad. ***8000 rad*** - The standard **total cumulative radiation dose** to **Point A** in the cervix for the treatment of cervical cancer is approximately **8000 rad (80 Gy)**. - This represents the **combined dose** from external beam radiation therapy (EBRT, typically 45-50 Gy) plus intracavitary brachytherapy (typically 30-40 Gy to Point A). - Point A is a classical reference point defined as **2 cm superior to the external cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the uterine canal**, representing the location where the uterine artery crosses the ureter. - This total dose aims to provide adequate tumor control while minimizing toxicity to surrounding organs like the bladder and rectum. *6000 rad* - A total dose of **6000 rad** is insufficient for definitive local control of cervical cancer. - This dose is below the therapeutic threshold and would result in significantly higher rates of local recurrence and treatment failure. - Adequate doses are essential for curative intent in cervical cancer management. *10000 rad* - A dose of **10000 rad** to Point A would be excessively high and significantly increase the risk of severe acute and late toxicities to surrounding tissues. - Such a high dose could lead to serious complications including **rectovaginal or vesicovaginal fistulas, proctitis, cystitis, bowel strictures, and tissue necrosis**. - The therapeutic window would be exceeded, causing more harm than benefit. *4000 rad* - A dose of **4000 rad** would be substantially lower than the standard therapeutic dose for cervical cancer. - This suboptimal dose would likely result in **inadequate tumor control and increased risk of local recurrence**. - It is far below the dose required for curative treatment of cervical cancer.

Question 1

Nikolsky's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Pemphigus

Answer

Herpes zoster

Answer

Bullous impetigo

Answer

All of the options

Question 2

Which of the following causes non-cicatricial alopecia?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Tinea capitis

Answer

SLE

Answer

Alopecia areata

Question 3

What is the expected rate of turnover of amniotic fluid in a pregnant woman?

Accepted Answer

500 cc/h

Answer

1 L/h

Answer

1500 cc/h

Answer

2L/h

Question 4

Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

Accepted Answer

10-20 times

Answer

1-2 times

Answer

5-6 times

Answer

15-25 times

Question 5

On which day LH & FSH should be measured?

Accepted Answer

1-3rd day

Answer

7th day

Answer

14th day

Answer

10th day

Question 6

Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus is:

Accepted Answer

Ulnar nerve

Answer

Radial nerve

Answer

Median nerve

Answer

Musculocutaneous nerve

Question 7

Bunion is commonly seen at ?

Accepted Answer

Great toe MTP joint

Answer

Medial malleolus

Answer

Lateral Malleolus

Answer

Shin of tibia

Question 8

Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?

Accepted Answer

Androgenic complete mole

Answer

Turner's syndrome

Answer

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

Answer

Androgenic partial mole

Question 9

Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of cocaine withdrawal symptoms?

Accepted Answer

No specific drug

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Antidepressants

Answer

Benzodiazepines

Question 10

What is the standard radiation dose to point A in the cervix for brachytherapy in the treatment of cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

8000 rad

Answer

6000 rad

Answer

10000 rad

Answer

4000 rad

NEET-PG 2013

Dermatology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Psychiatry

Radiology