NEET-PG 2024 Practice Questions

Q: The skin biopsy shown below is most consistent with which of the following conditions? ![img-28.jpeg](img-28.jpeg)

Lichen planus. ***Lichen planus*** - The image shows **basal cell degeneration** (liquefaction degeneration), a **sawtooth rete ridge pattern**, and a band-like inflammatory infiltrate primarily composed of lymphocytes at the dermo-epidermal junction, which are classic histological features of **lichen planus**. - **Civatte bodies** (apoptotic keratinocytes forming colloid bodies) are typically present, resulting from keratinocyte damage at the basal layer. - These features make lichen planus the most consistent diagnosis. *Lichen nitidus* - Characterized by **"ball and claw" lesions**, which are small, localized epidermal invaginations enclosing a central infiltrate of lymphocytes and histiocytes. - The granulomatous infiltrate is more focal and circumscribed compared to the band-like pattern of lichen planus. - While both are interface dermatitides, the architectural pattern differs significantly. *Morphea* - This is a localized form of **scleroderma**, characterized by increased **collagen deposition**, thickening of the dermis, and loss of adnexal structures like hair follicles and sweat glands. - The inflammatory infiltrate is typically perivascular and interstitial, not band-like at the dermo-epidermal junction. - The image does not show features of dermal fibrosis or homogenization of collagen bundles expected in morphea. *Lupus erythematosus* - Also shows **interface dermatitis** with basal vacuolar changes and lymphocytic infiltrate. - However, lupus typically shows a **perivascular and periappendageal pattern** of infiltrate rather than the dense band-like pattern of lichen planus. - Additional features in lupus include dermal mucin deposition, thickened basement membrane (PAS-positive), and follicular plugging. - The dense, continuous band-like infiltrate and sawtooth rete ridges favor lichen planus over lupus.

Q: A child presents with itchy lesions and diarrhea and has been advised to follow a gluten-free diet. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?

Celiac disease. ***Celiac disease*** - **Celiac disease** is an autoimmune condition triggered by **gluten ingestion**, leading to small intestine damage and nutrient malabsorption. - The combination of **itchy lesions** (dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin manifestation of celiac disease), **diarrhea**, and improvement on a **gluten-free diet** are highly characteristic. - Since the question asks for the **underlying etiology**, celiac disease is the correct answer as it causes both the skin and GI manifestations. *Whipple's disease* - This is a rare systemic infection caused by the bacterium **Tropheryma whipplei**, presenting with **arthralgia, fever, malabsorption, and lymphadenopathy**. - While it can cause diarrhea and malabsorption, it is not associated with itchy skin lesions and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. *Crohn's disease* - **Crohn's disease** is a type of inflammatory bowel disease affecting any part of the GI tract, causing **abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss**. - It is not associated with dermatitis herpetiformis and does not improve with a gluten-free diet (though some patients may have gluten sensitivity). *Dermatitis herpetiformis* - **Dermatitis herpetiformis** is the **cutaneous manifestation of celiac disease**, presenting as intensely itchy, vesicular lesions. - While DH explains the itchy lesions in this case, it is a **symptom/manifestation**, not the underlying **etiology**—the root cause is celiac disease itself, which produces both the intestinal damage (diarrhea) and the skin manifestations (DH).

Q: Which of the following antibodies is associated with Celiac disease?

Anti-TTG (Tissue Transglutaminase). ***Anti-TTG (Tissue Transglutaminase)*** - **Anti-TTG antibodies** (especially **IgA**) are the primary serological markers for celiac disease, demonstrating high sensitivity and specificity. - These antibodies target **tissue transglutaminase**, an enzyme involved in gluten deamidation, which triggers the autoimmune response in genetically predisposed individuals. - **Anti-TTG IgA** is the **preferred initial screening test** due to its superior diagnostic accuracy and cost-effectiveness. *ANCA (Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies)* - **ANCA** are associated with **vasculitis**, such as **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Wegener's)** and **Microscopic Polyangiitis**. - They are not a diagnostic marker for celiac disease, which is an autoimmune enteropathy. *ASCA (Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae Antibodies)* - **ASCA** are commonly found in patients with **Crohn's disease**, particularly in those with ileal involvement. - While both celiac disease and Crohn's are gastrointestinal conditions, ASCA is not a marker for celiac. *Anti-gliadin* - **Anti-gliadin antibodies (AGA)** were historically used in celiac disease diagnosis but have **lower sensitivity and specificity** compared to anti-TTG and anti-endomysial antibodies. - Modern guidelines recommend using **anti-TTG IgA** as the primary screening tool due to its superior diagnostic accuracy. *Anti-EMA (Endomysial Antibodies)* - **Anti-EMA IgA** is highly specific for celiac disease (>95% specificity) and is often used as a **confirmatory test**. - However, **anti-TTG is preferred for initial screening** because anti-EMA testing is more expensive, operator-dependent (uses immunofluorescence), and less widely available. - Anti-EMA targets the same antigen as anti-TTG (tissue transglutaminase).

Q: A patient is a known case of thalassemia. Which of the following viruses would be responsible for attacking progenitor cells and causing aplastic anemia?

Parvovirus B19. ***Parvovirus B19*** - **Parvovirus B19** specifically targets and replicates in **erythroid progenitor cells** in the bone marrow, leading to a temporary halt in red blood cell production [1]. - In patients with chronic hemolytic anemias like **thalassemia**, who already have increased erythropoietic demands, this can precipitate an **aplastic crisis** or pure red cell aplasia [1], [2]. *CMV (Cytomegalovirus)* - While CMV can affect the bone marrow and lead to myelosuppression, it does not typically cause a direct **aplastic crisis** by targeting erythroid progenitors in the same way as Parvovirus B19. - CMV often presents with a wider range of symptoms including fever, hepatitis, and mononucleosis-like syndrome, and bone marrow suppression is usually multi-lineage or less severe. *EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)* - EBV is known to cause infectious mononucleosis and can also be associated with some bone marrow disorders, but it does not primarily target **erythroid progenitor cells** to cause an aplastic crisis. - Its main target cells are **B lymphocytes**, and any bone marrow suppression is often secondary to immune dysregulation rather than direct lytic infection of stem cells. *Hepatitis C virus (HCV)* - HCV infection can lead to various hematologic manifestations, including aplastic anemia, but these are typically **immune-mediated** or associated with chronic liver disease and its complications. - HCV does not directly infect and destroy **hematopoietic progenitor cells** in the bone marrow as a primary mechanism of aplastic anemia.

Q: A patient presents with respiratory distress and is diagnosed with panacinar emphysema. Which of the following is deficient?

Alpha-1 antitrypsin. **Alpha-1 antitrypsin** * **Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency** is a genetic disorder that leads to the development of panacinar emphysema, especially in non-smokers or at a young age [1], [2]. * A1AT protects the lung tissue from destruction by **elastase** released by neutrophils; without it, this enzyme breaks down alveolar walls [1], [2]. *Surfactant* * **Surfactant** is responsible for reducing surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse in the lungs. * A deficiency primarily causes **neonatal respiratory distress syndrome** or adult respiratory distress syndrome, not predominantly emphysema. *Albumin* * **Albumin** is a primary protein in plasma that maintains oncotic pressure and transports various substances in the blood. * A deficiency in albumin (e.g., in liver disease or malnutrition) typically leads to **edema** and impaired drug transport, not emphysema. *Type II pneumocytes* * **Type II pneumocytes** are responsible for producing and secreting surfactant, as well as acting as progenitor cells for Type I pneumocytes. * While abnormalities in these cells can lead to surfactant deficiency, the direct cause of genetic panacinar emphysema is the lack of protection against elastase, not a primary defect in pneumocyte number or function in this context.

Q: Identify the image and the disease it is associated with: ![img-30.jpeg](img-30.jpeg)

Gaucher's disease. ***Gaucher's disease*** - The image shows **Gaucher cells** - characteristic lipid-laden macrophages with a distinctive **"crumpled tissue paper" or "wrinkled silk" cytoplasmic appearance** and eccentric nuclei [1] - These cells are pathognomonic for **Gaucher's disease**, an **autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder** caused by **glucocerebrosidase deficiency** [1] - Accumulation of **glucocerebroside** in macrophages creates the characteristic morphology seen in bone marrow, spleen, and liver [1] - Caused by mutations in the *GBA* gene on chromosome 1 [1] *Tay-Sachs disease* - Autosomal recessive disorder caused by **hexosaminidase A deficiency** leading to **GM2 ganglioside accumulation** [2] - Characteristic findings include **cherry-red spot on macula** and neuronal ballooning, not the macrophage changes seen in this image [2] - Does not produce Gaucher cells *Sandhoff's disease* - Caused by deficiency of both **hexosaminidase A and B** due to *HEXB* gene mutations - Similar to Tay-Sachs with GM2 ganglioside accumulation affecting neurons - Does not produce the characteristic macrophage morphology shown in the image *Fabry's disease* - **X-linked recessive** disorder caused by **alpha-galactosidase A deficiency** - Accumulation of **globotriaosylceramide** in vascular endothelial cells - Histology may show lipid deposits in vessels and kidney, not the distinctive Gaucher cells seen here **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 162-163. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, p. 161.

Q: A male patient is not responding to oxygen therapy and has been diagnosed with ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome). What is the role of IL-8 in ARDS?

Recruitment of neutrophils. Recruitment of neutrophils - **Interleukin-8 (IL-8)**, also known as **CXCL8**, is a powerful **chemotactic cytokine** that primarily attracts and activates neutrophils [3]. - In **ARDS**, this recruitment leads to an influx of neutrophils into the pulmonary interstitium and alveolar spaces, contributing to inflammation and lung injury [1]. *Endothelial cell activation* - While other **cytokines** and inflammatory mediators can activate **endothelial cells** in ARDS [2], IL-8's primary role is not direct endothelial activation but rather **neutrophil chemotaxis** [3]. - **Endothelial cell activation** leads to increased vascular permeability and leukocyte adherence, which is often a consequence of overall inflammation, not solely IL-8 [4]. *Macrophage activation* - **Macrophages** are activated by various stimuli and other **cytokines**, such as **TNF-alpha** and **IFN-gamma**, as part of the inflammatory response. - While macrophages produce IL-8, its main function is not to activate macrophages themselves but to attract **neutrophils**. *Promote surfactant production* - **Surfactant production** is primarily regulated by **Type II pneumocytes** and is often impaired in ARDS due to damage to these cells [1]. - IL-8 is a **pro-inflammatory cytokine** and plays no direct role in promoting surfactant synthesis; in fact, its inflammatory effects can indirectly worsen surfactant dysfunction. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, p. 681. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, p. 679. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 87-89. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Migration in the tissues toward a chemotactic stimulus, pp. 86-87.

Question 1

An adult male presented with a protruding abdomen, diarrhea, visual symptoms, and neurological manifestations. His LDL is low. Based on the peripheral smear finding shown in the image, what is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Abetalipoproteinemia

Answer

EDTA changes

Answer

Uremia

Answer

Burns

Answer

Liver disease

Question 2

The skin biopsy shown below is most consistent with which of the following conditions?
![img-28.jpeg](img-28.jpeg)

Accepted Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Lichen nitidus

Answer

Morphea

Answer

Lupus erythematosus

Question 3

A child presents with itchy lesions and diarrhea and has been advised to follow a gluten-free diet. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Celiac disease

Answer

Whipple's disease

Answer

Crohn's disease

Answer

Dermatitis herpetiformis

Question 4

Which of the following antibodies is associated with Celiac disease?

Accepted Answer

Anti-TTG (Tissue Transglutaminase)

Answer

ANCA (Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies)

Answer

ASCA (Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae Antibodies)

Answer

Anti-gliadin

Answer

Anti-EMA (Endomysial Antibodies)

Question 5

A patient is a known case of thalassemia. Which of the following viruses would be responsible for attacking progenitor cells and causing aplastic anemia?

Accepted Answer

Parvovirus B19

Answer

CMV (Cytomegalovirus)

Answer

EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)

Answer

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Question 6

A patient presents with respiratory distress and is diagnosed with panacinar emphysema. Which of the following is deficient?

Accepted Answer

Alpha-1 antitrypsin

Answer

Surfactant

Answer

Albumin

Answer

Type II pneumocytes

Question 7

A 23-year-old female with a height of 4 feet has a karyotype as shown in the image below. Which among the following indicates the correct etiology?

Accepted Answer

Turner syndrome

Answer

Klinefelter's syndrome

Answer

Down syndrome

Answer

Edward's syndrome

Question 8

Identify the image and the disease it is associated with:
![img-30.jpeg](img-30.jpeg)

Accepted Answer

Gaucher's disease

Answer

Tay-Sachs disease

Answer

Sandhoff's disease

Answer

Fabry's disease

Question 9

A male patient is not responding to oxygen therapy and has been diagnosed with ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome). What is the role of IL-8 in ARDS?

Accepted Answer

Recruitment of neutrophils

Answer

Endothelial cell activation

Answer

Macrophage activation

Answer

Promote surfactant production

Question 10

Identify the diagnosis from the given image

Accepted Answer

Malakoplakia

Answer

TB

Answer

BCC

Answer

Drug induced lesion

NEET-PG 2024

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Pathology