NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: The image shows a highlighted region on the dorsal aspect of the hand (anatomical snuffbox). Which of the following anatomical structures form the boundaries or floor of this region?

All of the above anatomical structures.. ***All of the above anatomical structures.*** - The image highlights the **anatomical snuffbox**, a triangular depression on the radial dorsal aspect of the hand. Its boundaries are formed by the tendons of the **extensor pollicis longus muscle** (ulnar side), and the **abductor pollicis longus** and **extensor pollicis brevis muscles** (radial side). - The **styloid process of the radius** forms the floor of the anatomical snuffbox along with the scaphoid and trapezium bones. All the options listed are key anatomical features associated with this region. *Extensor pollicis longus muscle.* - This muscle forms the **ulnar (medial) border** of the anatomical snuffbox. - Its tendon can be palpated during **thumb extension** and contributes to the overall structure of the highlighted area. *Abductor pollicis longus muscle.* - This muscle, along with the extensor pollicis brevis, forms the **radial (lateral) border** of the anatomical snuffbox. - Its tendon is visible and palpable on the radial side of the highlighted region when the thumb is abducted. *Styloid process of the radius.* - This bony prominence is located at the **distal end of the radius** on the radial side of the wrist. - It forms part of the **proximal floor** of the anatomical snuffbox, contributing to its definition.

Q: In trochlear palsy, which specific eye movement is lost?

Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye. ***Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye*** - Trochlear palsy affects the **superior oblique muscle**, which is primarily responsible for **downward gaze** and **intorsion** (inward rotation) of the eye, particularly when the eye is adducted. - Patients often present with **vertical diplopia** and a **head tilt** away from the affected side to compensate for the eye misalignment. *Upward gaze* - Upward gaze is primarily mediated by the **superior rectus muscle** (innervated by the oculomotor nerve) and the **inferior oblique muscle** (also oculomotor nerve). - Trochlear nerve palsy does not directly impair the muscles responsible for moving the eye upwards. *Lateral movement of the eye* - **Lateral movement** (abduction) of the eye is controlled by the **lateral rectus muscle**, which is innervated by the **abducens nerve (CN VI)**. - A loss of lateral movement would indicate an abducens nerve palsy, not a trochlear nerve palsy. *Facial expressions* - **Facial expressions** are controlled by the muscles of facial expression, which are innervated by the **facial nerve (CN VII)**. - This is unrelated to the cranial nerves involved in eye movement.

Q: Blood bags are disposed of in

Yellow bag. ***Yellow bag*** - **Yellow bags** are designated for **infectious waste** including items contaminated with **blood and body fluids** according to **Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016**. - **Blood bags** (both used and expired) are specifically categorized under **soiled waste** requiring disposal in **yellow bags**. - This waste is either incinerated or subjected to plasma pyrolysis to eliminate **bloodborne pathogens**. *Red bag* - **Red bags** are used for **contaminated recyclable waste** such as tubing, catheters, IV sets (without needles), and gloves. - While red bags handle contaminated items, they are meant for waste that can potentially be recycled after appropriate treatment, **not for blood bags**. *Black bag* - **Black bags** are designated for **general non-infectious waste** (municipal solid waste) such as paper, packaging materials, and food waste. - Disposing blood bags in black bags would violate **biomedical waste management regulations** and pose serious **infection control risks**. *White bag* - **White bags/containers** are puncture-proof containers used for **sharp waste** including needles, scalpels, and broken glass. - Blood bags are not classified as sharps and require different disposal methods due to their **infectious liquid content**.

Q: MC location of gastrinoma in MEN-1 syndrome?

Duodenum. ***Duodenum*** - In **MEN-1 syndrome**, gastrinomas are most commonly located in the **duodenum**, typically presenting as **multiple small submucosal tumors**. - These duodenal gastrinomas in MEN-1 are characteristically **numerous and tiny**, often difficult to detect during surgery. *Jejunum* - The jejunum is an **uncommon location** for gastrinomas in both sporadic cases and MEN-1 syndrome. - Gastrinomas in the jejunum are typically **rare** and not associated with the characteristic presentation of MEN-1. *Ileum* - The ileum is an **extremely rare site** for gastrinomas in any context. - Gastrinomas developing in the ileum are usually **ectopic** and are not part of the typical MEN-1 syndrome presentation. *Pancreas* - While pancreatic gastrinomas can occur in **MEN-1**, they are **less common** than duodenal gastrinomas in this syndrome. - In **sporadic gastrinomas**, the pancreas is relatively more involved compared to MEN-1, where duodenal predominance is more pronounced.

Q: A 42-year-old patient with obstructive jaundice. Alp, Ggt, haptoglobin all increased. The most likely cause is:

Biliary obstruction. ***Alcohol*** - Chronic **alcohol consumption** leads to hepatic injury, causing cholestasis and increased levels of **Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)** and **Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)** [1, 2]. - Increased **haptoglobin** indicates hemolysis or hepatic dysfunction, commonly seen in alcohol-related liver disease [1]. *Lead* - Lead poisoning typically causes **anemia** and affects **erythropoiesis**, but does not generally increase ALP and GGT levels significantly. - The classic presentation involves **neurological** deficits and **peripheral neuropathy**, rather than obstructive jaundice. *Chronic rf* - Chronic renal failure primarily affects **uremia** and renal function tests, with minimal impact on liver function tests like ALP and GGT. - It is not directly associated with **increased haptoglobin**, which is usually elevated in liver disease. *None of the above* - This option implies that none of the listed causes could lead to the observed lab changes, which is incorrect as **alcohol** is a known cause [1, 2]. - Enhancing liver damage from substances other than alcohol is not applicable based on the information given.

Q: What is the best treatment option for a septate uterus?

Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum. ***Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum*** - This procedure involves using a **hysteroscope** to visualize and resect the **fibrous or muscular septum** that divides the uterine cavity, restoring a normal uterine shape. - It is considered the gold standard due to its **minimally invasive nature**, effectiveness in improving reproductive outcomes, and lower risk of complications compared to abdominal approaches. *Tompkins Metroplasty* - This is an **abdominal surgical procedure** primarily used for the repair of a **bicornuate uterus**, not typically for a septate uterus. - It involves resecting the uterine fundus to create a single uterine cavity, which is more invasive than hysteroscopic septum resection. *Jones metroplasty* - This procedure is also an **abdominal approach** used for the surgical correction of a **bicornuate uterus**, not a septate uterus. - It involves excising the septal portion and approximating the uterine walls. *Strassmann metroplasty* - This is another **abdominal surgical technique** that is primarily indicated for the repair of a **bicornuate or didelphys uterus**, where a large defect needs to be corrected. - It involves reconstructing the uterus through a fundal incision, which is significantly more invasive than hysteroscopic septal resection for a septate uterus.

Q: What is the most serious complication of measles?

Pneumonia. ***Pneumonia*** - **Pneumonia**, particularly **giant cell pneumonia**, is the most common cause of **measles-related deaths** in young children. - It results from the **direct viral infection** of the lungs or a **secondary bacterial superinfection**. *Croup* - **Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)** can be a complication of measles, but it is typically **less severe** and **less life-threatening** than pneumonia. - It primarily affects the **upper airways**, causing a barking cough and stridor. *Meningo-encephalitis* - **Meningo-encephalitis** is a serious, albeit **less common**, complication of measles, occurring in approximately 1 in 1,000 cases. - While potentially fatal or leading to neurological sequelae, it is **outranked by pneumonia** in terms of overall mortality attributed to measles. *Otitis media* - **Otitis media** (middle ear infection) is a common complication of measles, but it is generally **not life-threatening**. - It usually responds well to **antibiotic treatment** and rarely leads to severe outcomes.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a prokinetic agent?

Diphenylmethane. Diphenylmethane derivatives (e.g., bisacodyl, sodium picosulfate) are stimulant laxatives, not prokinetic agents. While they do increase colonic motility, they work by direct stimulation of the colonic mucosa and myenteric plexus, causing increased water secretion and peristalsis [3]. Prokinetic agents specifically enhance coordinated gastrointestinal motility through modulation of neurotransmitters (acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, motilin), whereas laxatives work through different mechanisms (osmotic effects, stimulation, bulk formation). Therefore, diphenylmethane derivatives are classified as laxatives, not prokinetics. Dopamine antagonist - Dopamine antagonists like metoclopramide and domperidone block D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and GI tract, enhancing acetylcholine release and promoting gastric emptying [2]. - They are commonly used as prokinetic agents and antiemetics [2]. 5HT4 agonist - 5HT4 agonists (e.g., cisapride, prucalopride) stimulate serotonin receptors in the enteric nervous system, increasing acetylcholine release and enhancing colonic motility [1]. - They are effective prokinetic agents for conditions like chronic constipation and gastroparesis [1]. Macrolides - Certain macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, act as motilin receptor agonists at sub-antibiotic doses. - By mimicking motilin, they stimulate gastric and intestinal contractions (phase III of migrating motor complex), functioning as prokinetic agents.

Question 1

The image shows a highlighted region on the dorsal aspect of the hand (anatomical snuffbox). Which of the following anatomical structures form the boundaries or floor of this region?

Accepted Answer

All of the above anatomical structures.

Answer

Abductor pollicis longus muscle.

Answer

Styloid process of the radius.

Answer

Extensor pollicis longus muscle.

Question 2

In trochlear palsy, which specific eye movement is lost?

Accepted Answer

Downward gaze and inward rotation of the eye

Answer

Upward gaze

Answer

Lateral movement of the eye

Answer

Facial expressions

Question 3

Blood bags are disposed of in

Accepted Answer

Yellow bag

Answer

Black bag

Answer

Red bag

Answer

White bag

Question 4

MC location of gastrinoma in MEN-1 syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Jejunum

Answer

Ileum

Answer

Pancreas

Question 5

A 42-year-old patient with obstructive jaundice. Alp, Ggt, haptoglobin all increased. The most likely cause is:

Accepted Answer

Biliary obstruction

Answer

Alcohol

Answer

Lead

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

What is the best treatment option for a septate uterus?

Accepted Answer

Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum

Answer

Tompkins Metroplasty

Answer

Jones metroplasty

Answer

Strassmann metroplasty

Question 7

What is the most serious complication of measles?

Accepted Answer

Pneumonia

Answer

Croup

Answer

Otitis media

Answer

Meningo-encephalitis

Question 8

Which of the following is not considered a prokinetic agent?

Accepted Answer

Diphenylmethane

Answer

Dopamine antagonist

Answer

5HT4 agonist

Answer

Macrolides

Question 9

Which statement about retrosternal goiter is correct?

Accepted Answer

CT chest is recommended for evaluation of retrosternal goiter.

Answer

Surgery should be avoided in all cases.

Answer

All patients require surgical intervention.

Answer

Blood supply primarily comes from the thyroid arteries.

Question 10

A 68-year-old asymptomatic male is found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) measuring 4.5 cm on routine ultrasound screening. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Monitor regularly and consider surgery if size reaches 55mm or symptomatic

Answer

Ultrasound monitoring until size exceeds 70mm

Answer

No treatment unless symptomatic

Answer

Immediate surgical repair for all diagnosed aneurysms regardless of size

NEET-PG 2020

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery