NEET-PG 2020 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: Targeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?

Immigrant screening. ***Immigrant screening*** - Targeted screening for communicable diseases such as **tuberculosis**, **hepatitis B**, and **HIV** is commonly implemented in immigrants due to varied disease prevalence in their countries of origin and potential for public health impact. - This screening aims to **prevent the spread** of these diseases within the host country and ensure appropriate medical attention for new arrivals. *Newborns for thyroid disease* - This is an example of **universal newborn screening** for a **non-communicable disease** (congenital hypothyroidism), not targeted screening for communicable diseases. - The purpose is early detection of conditions that can cause **developmental delays** if untreated, not preventing infection spread. *Diabetes mellitus* - Screening for **diabetes** focuses on a **non-communicable metabolic disorder**. - Screening typically targets individuals with risk factors like obesity, family history, or certain ethnic backgrounds, but it's not for communicable diseases. *Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear* - This screens for **cancer** (a non-communicable disease) caused by the **human papillomavirus (HPV)**, but the screening itself is not primarily for a communicable disease. - The Pap smear primarily detects **precancerous and cancerous changes** in cervical cells, rather than active HPV infection or other communicable diseases. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: What is the surgical procedure for widening of the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal?

meatoplasty. ***Meatoplasty*** - **Meatoplasty** is a surgical procedure specifically designed to **widen the external auditory canal**, often performed to improve drainage or aid in fitting hearing aids. - This procedure usually involves modifying the **cartilaginous part** of the canal to prevent stenosis or collapse, which can cause conductive hearing loss. *Otoplasty* - **Otoplasty** is a cosmetic surgical procedure primarily focused on reshaping the **external ear (pinna)**, often to correct prominent ears or deformities. - It does not involve widening the external auditory canal. *Myringoplasty* - **Myringoplasty** is a surgical repair of a **perforated tympanic membrane (eardrum)**. - The goal is to close the hole in the eardrum to improve hearing and prevent recurrent infections, without altering the external auditory canal's width. *Tympanoplasty* - **Tympanoplasty** is a broader surgical term that involves the repair of the **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** and/or the **ossicular chain** within the middle ear. - While it addresses middle ear issues and hearing improvement, it typically does not involve widening the external auditory canal as its primary goal. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?

CMV. ***CMV*** - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is the most common viral infection causing significant morbidity and mortality in solid organ transplant recipients, often leading to **reactivation disease** within 1 to 4 months post-transplant due to immunosuppression [1]. - CMV disease can manifest in various forms, including **fever**, **leukopenia**, **gastroenteritis**, and potentially organ-specific involvement, mimicking transplant rejection [3]. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** reactivation is a concern in transplant recipients but is more strongly associated with the development of **post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)**, which tends to occur later than the 1-4 month window for typical CMV reactivation [1]. - While EBV can cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome, its timeline and common severe complications differ from the typical CMV reactivation pattern [2]. *HSV* - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** reactivation is typically seen much earlier in transplant recipients, often within the first few weeks (usually 1-2 weeks) post-transplant [1]. - HSV reactivation typically presents as **mucocutaneous lesions** (e.g., cold sores, genital ulcers) rather than systemic disease in the 1-4 month window [3]. *VZV* - **Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** reactivation (shingles) occurs in transplant recipients, but it generally has a slightly later onset than CMV, often beyond 4 months post-transplant or less commonly within the 1-4 month window [1]. - VZV reactivation typically presents as **dermatomal rash** and pain, which is distinct from the systemic symptoms of CMV disease. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presents with clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa, typically near the upper molars. These lesions are pathognomonic for measles. What are these lesions called?

Koplik spots. ***Koplik spots*** - These are pathognomonic for **measles (rubeola)** and appear as small, **white or bluish-white lesions** on an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. - They typically precede the characteristic rash of measles by 1-2 days, making them a crucial early diagnostic sign. *Leukoplakia* - Refers to **thickened, white patches** on the mucous membranes that cannot be scraped off and are often precancerous. - These lesions are usually associated with chronic irritation (e.g., tobacco use) and are not a feature of viral infections like measles. *Kaposi spots* - This term is **not typically used** to describe oral lesions, particularly in the context of measles. - Kaposi sarcoma involves **purple or brown skin lesions** associated with HHV-8 infection, commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Koplik spots** accurately describe the buccal mucosal lesions pathognomonic for measles. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?

Myelin sheath. ***Myelin sheath*** - Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of the **myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [3]. - The demyelination of nerve fibers impairs the **conduction of electrical signals**, leading to a wide range of neurological symptoms [3]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are the cells responsible for **producing and maintaining the myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [1]. - While oligodendrocytes are directly involved in myelination, the primary defect in MS is the **destruction of the myelin itself**, not primarily a defect in the oligodendrocytes' ability to produce it initially [3]. *Node of Ranvier* - The **nodes of Ranvier** are gaps in the myelin sheath that allow for **saltatory conduction** of nerve impulses [1]. - While damage to the myelin sheath around the nodes can affect their function, the primary defect in MS is the **loss of the insulating myelin material**, not a structural defect in the nodes themselves [2]. *Neuroglial cells* - **Neuroglial cells** (or glial cells) encompass various cell types, including oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells, which support neurons [4]. - While glial cells (specifically oligodendrocytes) are involved in myelin production, and other glial cells like microglia can contribute to the inflammatory response in MS, the **direct defect leading to neurological impairment is the destruction of the myelin sheath**, not a general defect in all neuroglial cells [4]. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

Targeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?

Accepted Answer

Immigrant screening

Answer

Newborns for thyroid disease

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear

Question 2

What is the surgical procedure for widening of the cartilaginous part of the external auditory canal?

Accepted Answer

meatoplasty

Answer

otoplasty

Answer

myringoplasty

Answer

tympanoplasty

Question 3

In renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?

Accepted Answer

CMV

Answer

EBV

Answer

HSV

Answer

VZV

Question 4

A patient presents with clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa, typically near the upper molars. These lesions are pathognomonic for measles. What are these lesions called?

Accepted Answer

Koplik spots

Answer

Leukoplakia

Answer

Kaposi spots

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?

Accepted Answer

Myelin sheath

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Node of Ranvier

Answer

Neuroglial cells

Question 6

A middle-aged male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he had a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fl, with the peripheral smear showing macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Chronic alcohol use

Answer

Ancylostoma duodenale infection

Answer

Chronic kidney disease

Answer

Colorectal cancer

Question 7

What is the obstetric score of a 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant, has had one previous delivery of twins, and is certain of her dates?

Accepted Answer

G2P1L2 (2 live births)

Answer

G3P2L2 (3 pregnancies, 2 live births)

Answer

G2P2L2 (2 pregnancies, 2 live births)

Answer

G3P3L2

Question 8

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease?

Accepted Answer

Amiodarone

Answer

Lignocaine

Answer

Sotalol

Answer

Quinidine

Question 9

Which of the following techniques is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?

Accepted Answer

Patch clamp

Answer

Galvanometry

Answer

Voltage clamp

Answer

Iontophoresis

Question 10

What is the appropriate management for a male patient who presents to the hospital with abdominal pain from cholecystitis and is incidentally detected with an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm?

Accepted Answer

Monitor till size reaches 55 mm

Answer

Immediate surgery

Answer

Monitor till size reaches 45 mm

Answer

USG monitoring till size of the aneurysm reaches 70 mm

NEET-PG 2020

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery