NEET-PG 2020 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: Targeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?

Immigrant screening. ***Immigrant screening*** - Targeted screening for communicable diseases such as **tuberculosis**, **hepatitis B**, and **HIV** is commonly implemented in immigrants due to varied disease prevalence in their countries of origin and potential for public health impact. - This screening aims to **prevent the spread** of these diseases within the host country and ensure appropriate medical attention for new arrivals. *Newborns for thyroid disease* - This is an example of **universal newborn screening** for a **non-communicable disease** (congenital hypothyroidism), not targeted screening for communicable diseases. - The purpose is early detection of conditions that can cause **developmental delays** if untreated, not preventing infection spread. *Diabetes mellitus* - Screening for **diabetes** focuses on a **non-communicable metabolic disorder**. - Screening typically targets individuals with risk factors like obesity, family history, or certain ethnic backgrounds, but it's not for communicable diseases. *Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear* - This screens for **cancer** (a non-communicable disease) caused by the **human papillomavirus (HPV)**, but the screening itself is not primarily for a communicable disease. - The Pap smear primarily detects **precancerous and cancerous changes** in cervical cells, rather than active HPV infection or other communicable diseases. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?

CMV. ***CMV*** - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is the most common viral infection causing significant morbidity and mortality in solid organ transplant recipients, often leading to **reactivation disease** within 1 to 4 months post-transplant due to immunosuppression [1]. - CMV disease can manifest in various forms, including **fever**, **leukopenia**, **gastroenteritis**, and potentially organ-specific involvement, mimicking transplant rejection [3]. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** reactivation is a concern in transplant recipients but is more strongly associated with the development of **post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)**, which tends to occur later than the 1-4 month window for typical CMV reactivation [1]. - While EBV can cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome, its timeline and common severe complications differ from the typical CMV reactivation pattern [2]. *HSV* - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** reactivation is typically seen much earlier in transplant recipients, often within the first few weeks (usually 1-2 weeks) post-transplant [1]. - HSV reactivation typically presents as **mucocutaneous lesions** (e.g., cold sores, genital ulcers) rather than systemic disease in the 1-4 month window [3]. *VZV* - **Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** reactivation (shingles) occurs in transplant recipients, but it generally has a slightly later onset than CMV, often beyond 4 months post-transplant or less commonly within the 1-4 month window [1]. - VZV reactivation typically presents as **dermatomal rash** and pain, which is distinct from the systemic symptoms of CMV disease. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?

Myelin sheath. ***Myelin sheath*** - Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of the **myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [3]. - The demyelination of nerve fibers impairs the **conduction of electrical signals**, leading to a wide range of neurological symptoms [3]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are the cells responsible for **producing and maintaining the myelin sheath** in the central nervous system [1]. - While oligodendrocytes are directly involved in myelination, the primary defect in MS is the **destruction of the myelin itself**, not primarily a defect in the oligodendrocytes' ability to produce it initially [3]. *Node of Ranvier* - The **nodes of Ranvier** are gaps in the myelin sheath that allow for **saltatory conduction** of nerve impulses [1]. - While damage to the myelin sheath around the nodes can affect their function, the primary defect in MS is the **loss of the insulating myelin material**, not a structural defect in the nodes themselves [2]. *Neuroglial cells* - **Neuroglial cells** (or glial cells) encompass various cell types, including oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells, which support neurons [4]. - While glial cells (specifically oligodendrocytes) are involved in myelin production, and other glial cells like microglia can contribute to the inflammatory response in MS, the **direct defect leading to neurological impairment is the destruction of the myelin sheath**, not a general defect in all neuroglial cells [4]. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A middle-aged male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he had a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fl, with the peripheral smear showing macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings in this patient?

Chronic alcohol use. ***Chronic alcoholism*** - **Macrocytic anemia** with a **hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL** is commonly seen in chronic alcoholism due to impaired erythropoiesis and folate deficiency. [1] - The **peripheral smear** showing **hypersegmented neutrophils** is indicative of megaloblastic anemia, often linked to **alcoholism**. [1] *Chronic renal failure* - Typically causes **normocytic anemia** due to inadequate erythropoietin production, not macrocytic anemia. [2] - While uremic effects can impact erythropoiesis, they usually do not produce **hypersegmented neutrophils** found in megaloblastic anemia. *Colon cancer* - More commonly causes **microcytic anemia** due to **iron deficiency** from chronic blood loss rather than macrocytic anemia. [2] - **Macrocytic anemia** with hypersegmented neutrophils would not be expected in most cases of colon cancer. *Ancylostoma duodenale infestation* - This hookworm infection typically leads to **microcytic anemia** due to **iron deficiency**, not macrocytic. [2] - The presence of **macrocytes** and **hypersegmented neutrophils** does not correlate with this type of anemia. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Q: What is the obstetric score of a 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant, has had one previous delivery of twins, and is certain of her dates?

G2P1L2 (2 live births). ***G2P1L2 (2 live births)*** - **Gravida (G)** refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. This woman is currently pregnant and has had one previous pregnancy, making her G2. - **Parity (P)** refers to the number of pregnancies that reached viability (>20 weeks gestation or >500g), *regardless of the number of fetuses*. She had one previous delivery (twins) that reached viability, so her P is 1. The current pregnancy is not included in parity until after delivery. - **Live births (L)** refers to the number of live children delivered. Her previous pregnancy resulted in twins, meaning 2 live births. *G3P2L2 (3 pregnancies, 2 live births)* - This option incorrectly counts the number of pregnancies (**G**) as 3. She has had one previous pregnancy and is currently pregnant, totaling 2 pregnancies. - It also incorrectly counts the parity (**P**) as 2. Parity refers to the number of deliveries that reached viability, not the number of fetuses. Her previous delivery was a single event, making P1. *G2P2L2 (2 pregnancies, 2 live births)* - While the Gravida (G2) and Live births (L2) are correct, the Parity (**P**) is incorrectly stated as 2. Parity refers to the number of viable pregnancies delivered, and she has only had one previous delivery. - The number of fetuses (twins) does not increase the parity count for a single delivery event. *G3P3L2 (3 pregnancies, 3 live births)* - This option incorrectly states the number of pregnancies (**G**) as 3 and the parity (**P**) as 3. - The woman has only had one previous pregnancy and is currently pregnant, for a total of G2 and P1. [Practice more NEET-PG 2020 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

Targeted screening for communicable diseases is most commonly implemented in which population?

Accepted Answer

Immigrant screening

Answer

Newborns for thyroid disease

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Cervical cancer screening with Pap smear

Question 2

In renal transplant recipients, which is the likely organism causing reactivation disease within 1 to 4 months after surgery?

Accepted Answer

CMV

Answer

EBV

Answer

HSV

Answer

VZV

Question 3

In multiple sclerosis, where does the defect occur?

Accepted Answer

Myelin sheath

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Node of Ranvier

Answer

Neuroglial cells

Question 4

A middle-aged male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he had a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fl, with the peripheral smear showing macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Chronic alcohol use

Answer

Ancylostoma duodenale infection

Answer

Chronic kidney disease

Answer

Colorectal cancer

Question 5

What is the obstetric score of a 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant, has had one previous delivery of twins, and is certain of her dates?

Accepted Answer

G2P1L2 (2 live births)

Answer

G3P2L2 (3 pregnancies, 2 live births)

Answer

G2P2L2 (2 pregnancies, 2 live births)

Answer

G3P3L2

Question 6

A patient presents with clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa, typically near the upper molars. These lesions are pathognomonic for measles. What are these lesions called?

Accepted Answer

Koplik spots

Answer

Leukoplakia

Answer

Kaposi spots

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease?

Accepted Answer

Amiodarone

Answer

Lignocaine

Answer

Sotalol

Answer

Quinidine

Question 8

Which of the following techniques is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?

Accepted Answer

Patch clamp

Answer

Galvanometry

Answer

Voltage clamp

Answer

Iontophoresis

Question 9

What is the most likely diagnosis of a child with the following chest X-ray finding (image required)?

Accepted Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Answer

Transposition of Great Arteries (TGA)

Answer

Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)

Answer

Ebstein's Anomaly

Question 10

What is the appropriate management for a male patient who presents to the hospital with abdominal pain from cholecystitis and is incidentally detected with an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm?

Accepted Answer

Monitor till size reaches 55 mm

Answer

Immediate surgery

Answer

Monitor till size reaches 45 mm

Answer

USG monitoring till size of the aneurysm reaches 70 mm

NEET-PG 2020

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Radiology

Surgery