NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: Episiotomy incision was extended posteriorly beyond perineal body injuring the structure immediately posterior to it. Which structure has been injured?

External anal sphincter. ***External anal sphincter*** - An overextended **episiotomy incision** that goes beyond the perineal body posteriorly will likely injure the **external anal sphincter**, which is immediately posterior to the perineal body [4]. - Injury to this sphincter can lead to **fecal incontinence** [1]. *Ischiocavernosus* - The **ischiocavernosus muscle** is located more laterally in the perineum and plays a role in clitoral erection, not directly posterior to the perineal body. - An episiotomy extending posteriorly would not typically involve this muscle. *Urethral sphincter* - The **urethral sphincter** is located anterior to the perineal body and surrounds the urethra [3]. - Injury to this sphincter is associated with anterior perineal trauma, not posterior extension of an episiotomy [3]. *Bulbospongiosus* - The **bulbospongiosus muscle** is a superficial perineal muscle that surrounds the vaginal orifice and contributes to the perineal body [4]. - While it can be involved in an episiotomy, the structure immediately posterior to the perineal body itself is the external anal sphincter [2].

Q: What is the nerve supply of the shown muscle?

Dorsal scapular. ***Dorsal scapular*** - The image points to the **levator scapulae muscle**, which elevates and rotates the scapula. - The **dorsal scapular nerve** (C5 root, with contributions from C3-C4) innervates the levator scapulae, as well as the rhomboid major and minor muscles. - This nerve arises from the C5 root of the brachial plexus and pierces through the middle scalene muscle. - Clinically, injury to the dorsal scapular nerve can cause **medial scapular winging** and difficulty elevating the shoulder. *Suprascapular* - The suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) primarily innervates the **supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles**, which are involved in rotator cuff function. - It does not supply the levator scapulae muscle. - This nerve passes through the suprascapular notch beneath the superior transverse scapular ligament. *Dorsal rami of C1* - The **dorsal ramus of C1** (suboccipital nerve) primarily innervates the muscles of the suboccipital triangle: rectus capitis posterior major and minor, obliquus capitis superior and inferior. - These nerves are involved in fine head and neck movements but do not innervate the levator scapulae. - The levator scapulae receives segmental innervation from C3-C4 cervical nerves directly, in addition to the dorsal scapular nerve. *Subscapular* - The subscapular nerves (upper and lower, from C5-C6) innervate the **subscapularis muscle**, which is part of the rotator cuff. - They also innervate the **teres major muscle**, but not the levator scapulae. - These are branches from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

Q: In a preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome, which of the following lipids would be deficient?

Lecithin. ***Lecithin*** - **Lecithin** (also known as **phosphatidylcholine**) is the primary component of **surfactant** in the lungs, which reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. - In **preterm babies**, insufficient production of lecithin due to immature lung development leads to **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**. *Cardiolipin* - **Cardiolipin** is a major phospholipid found in the **inner mitochondrial membrane**, crucial for oxidative phosphorylation. - Deficiency is associated with mitochondrial disorders like **Barth syndrome**, not primary respiratory distress. *Sphingomyelin* - **Sphingomyelin** is a significant component of **cell membranes** and **myelin sheaths**, important for nerve insulation. - While present in the lungs, its primary role is not in surface tension reduction, and its deficiency is not directly linked to RDS. *Phosphatidylinositol* - **Phosphatidylinositol** is a precursor for various **signaling molecules** and plays a role in cell membrane structure. - While involved in cellular processes, it is not the critical surfactant component whose deficiency causes RDS.

Q: Patient with clinical signs of DVT had tachycardia and history of bladder cancer. According to modified Well's scoring, the probability of pulmonary embolism would be :

Intermediate. **Intermediate** - Clinical signs of **DVT (3 points)**, **tachycardia (heart rate > 100 bpm, 1.5 points)**, and a history of **cancer (1 point)** sum up to 5.5 points, which falls within the range for an intermediate probability (2-6 points) on the modified Well's score for PE. - The modified Well's criteria assigns specific points for risk factors and clinical findings, guiding the diagnostic approach for pulmonary embolism [1]. *Low* - A low probability for PE according to the modified Well's score is indicated by a total score of **less than 2 points** [1]. - The patient's presentation accumulates significantly more points than this threshold due to multiple contributing factors. *High* - A high probability for PE according to the modified Well's score is indicated by a total score of **greater than 6 points** [1]. - The patient's score of 5.5 points does not meet this threshold, placing them in the intermediate category.

Q: Which of the following is most likely to be acquired by traumatic inoculation?

Sporothrix schenckii. ***Sporothrix schenckii*** - **Sporothrix schenckii** causes **sporotrichosis** (rose gardener's disease), which is classically acquired through **traumatic inoculation** via thorns, splinters, or plant material contaminated with the fungus. - This dimorphic fungus exists in soil and vegetation, and the mode of transmission is characteristically associated with **gardeners, farmers, and florists** who experience penetrating injuries during their work. - Presents as lymphocutaneous infection with nodular lesions along lymphatic channels. *Histoplasma capsulatum* - Causes histoplasmosis and is endemic to certain regions (Ohio and Mississippi River valleys). - Primarily acquired through **inhalation of microconidia** from soil contaminated with bird or bat droppings, not through traumatic inoculation. - Presents as pulmonary infection in most cases. *Coccidioides immitis* - Causes coccidioidomycosis (Valley Fever) and is found in arid regions of southwestern United States. - Acquired through **inhalation of airborne arthroconidia** from disturbed soil, not through traumatic inoculation. - While rare cases of primary cutaneous infection can occur, inhalation remains the typical route. *Aspergillus fumigatus* - Ubiquitous environmental mold associated with decaying organic matter. - Primarily causes disease through **inhalation of conidia**, leading to allergic reactions, aspergilloma, or invasive aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients. - Not typically associated with traumatic inoculation as the primary mode of infection.

Q: A 60 years old Female with intermittent bleeding per vagina, endometrial collection, and thickening with anterior bulging of the fundal area on ultrasound. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Endometrial Polyp. ***Endometrial Polyp*** - Intermittent bleeding and an **endometrial collection** with **thickening** are classic signs of an endometrial polyp. - The **anterior bulging of the fundal area** on ultrasound is characteristic of a **localized, sessile polyp** protruding into the endometrial cavity. - Polyps are benign overgrowths of endometrial tissue that commonly present with postmenopausal bleeding. *Submucous Fibroid* - While submucous fibroids can cause intermittent bleeding and fundal bulging, they typically appear as a distinct **hypoechoic mass arising from the myometrium** with a whorled pattern. - Fibroids are solid lesions, whereas the description of "endometrial collection" suggests a more cystic or polypoid nature. *Adenomyosis* - Adenomyosis involves **endometrial tissue within the myometrium**, typically causing diffuse uterine enlargement with a heterogeneous myometrial echotexture. - It usually presents with **dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia** rather than intermittent bleeding with focal fundal bulging. - The ultrasound findings described are more consistent with an **intracavitary lesion** rather than myometrial pathology. *Endometrial Cancer* - Endometrial cancer is an important consideration in postmenopausal bleeding with endometrial thickening. - However, malignancy typically presents with a **heterogeneous, irregular endometrial pattern** with increased vascularity on Doppler. - The description of a **discrete collection with focal bulging** points more toward a **benign, localized lesion** like a polyp rather than diffuse malignancy.

Q: A 5-year-old child is having acute liver failure. Which one of the following criteria is not included in the King's College criteria?

Age < 11 years. ***Age < 11 years*** - Age is **NOT included** in the original King's College criteria for acute liver failure - King's College criteria are based on **biochemical parameters** (INR, bilirubin, pH, creatinine) and **clinical factors** (encephalopathy grade, jaundice-to-encephalopathy interval), not patient age - While **younger age may be a prognostic factor** in pediatric liver failure, it is not part of the formal King's College criteria used to predict poor prognosis or need for transplantation *INR > 6.5* - An **elevated INR > 6.5** (or PT > 100 seconds) is a **key criterion** in King's College criteria for non-paracetamol acute liver failure - Indicates severe **coagulopathy** and hepatic synthetic dysfunction - One of the most important predictors of poor outcome *Jaundice 7 days = subacute (worse prognosis, indicates need for transplant) - This temporal relationship is a **critical prognostic indicator** *Bilirubin > 300 mmol/L* - **Serum bilirubin > 300 μmol/L** (17.5 mg/dL) is explicitly included in King's College criteria for non-paracetamol ALF - Indicates severe **cholestasis** and hepatocellular dysfunction - Part of the multi-parameter assessment for transplant listing

Q: Anti-glaucoma drug that acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow is

Latanoprost. ***Latanoprost*** - **Latanoprost** is a **prostaglandin F2α analog** that effectively lowers intraocular pressure by significantly increasing **uveoscleral outflow**. - It works by remodeling the extracellular matrix in the ciliary body and sclera, which facilitates the drainage of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway. *Dorzolamide* - **Dorzolamide** is a **topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that reduces the production of aqueous humor, thus lowering intraocular pressure. - It does not directly affect the uveoscleral outflow pathway. *Pilocarpine* - **Pilocarpine** is a **cholinergic agonist** that primarily works by increasing the **trabecular outflow** of aqueous humor through contraction of the ciliary muscle [1]. - It does not significantly influence the uveoscleral outflow pathway. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **beta-adrenergic blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production by the ciliary body [1]. - Its mechanism of action involves decreasing the formation, rather than increasing the outflow, of aqueous humor [1].

Q: A patient was on lithium therapy for bipolar disorder for 6 months. She fasted for few days due to religious reasons and presented with coarse tremors, abdominal pain, nausea, dizziness & confusion. Which of the following should be done to assess her condition?

S. lithium levels. ***S. lithium levels*** - The patient's symptoms (coarse tremors, abdominal pain, nausea, dizziness, confusion) are classic for **lithium toxicity**, which is exacerbated by **dehydration** from fasting [1], [2]. - Measuring **serum lithium levels** is crucial for confirming the diagnosis and guiding immediate management [1]. *ECG* - While lithium toxicity can cause **cardiac arrhythmias** (QT prolongation, T-wave changes), an ECG is a secondary assessment to evaluate for complications, not the primary diagnostic test for toxicity itself. - An ECG doesn't directly measure lithium concentration, which is essential for diagnosing toxicity. *S. electrolyte* - **Electrolyte imbalances**, particularly **hyponatremia**, can worsen lithium toxicity by affecting its renal excretion [2]. - While important to check for contributing factors and guide supportive care, measuring electrolytes is secondary to confirming elevated lithium levels as the cause of symptoms. *MRI* - An **MRI of the brain** is not indicated for the initial assessment of suspected lithium toxicity. - It would only be considered if there were concerns for focal neurological deficits or other structural brain abnormalities, which are not directly suggested by the presented symptoms of lithium toxicity.

Q: A man is brought to the emergency after he fell into a man hole and injured his perineum. He feels the urge to micturate but is unable to pass urine and there is blood at the tip of the meatus with extensive swelling of the penis and scrotum. What is the location of the injury?

Bulbar urethra. ***Bulbar urethra*** - Injury to the **bulbar (spongy) urethra** in the perineum, often from a straddle injury or fall into a manhole, typically causes the extravasation of urine and blood into the **superficial perineal pouch**. - This leads to **extensive swelling of the penis and scrotum** (butterfly hematoma) because the superficial perineal fascia (Colles' fascia) is continuous with dartos fascia of the penis and scrotum, preventing blood from extending into the thighs or abdominal wall, combined with an inability to micturate with blood at the meatus. *Membranous urethra* - Injury to the **membranous urethra** is usually associated with **pelvic fractures** and tends to cause extravasation into the **deep perineal space** and then the retroperitoneum, leading to swelling in the lower abdomen or around the anus, not primarily the penis and scrotum. - While it can cause inability to micturate and blood at the meatus, the characteristic extensive swelling of the penis and scrotum points away from this location. *Prostatic urethra* - Injuries to the **prostatic urethra** are rare and typically occur with **severe pelvic crush injuries** given its protected position deep within the pelvis. - While it would cause inability to urinate, the nature of the fall and the distribution of swelling (predominantly penis and scrotum) are not typical for prostatic urethral injury. *Bladder* - A bladder injury from a fall would likely present with suprapubic pain and hematuria, but the inability to urinate combined with **blood at the meatus** and extensive swelling limited to the penis and scrotum is not characteristic of isolated bladder trauma. - **Blood at the meatus** is a classic sign of urethral, not typically bladder, injury.

Question 1

Episiotomy incision was extended posteriorly beyond perineal body injuring the structure immediately posterior to it. Which structure has been injured?

Accepted Answer

External anal sphincter

Answer

Ischiocavernosus

Answer

Urethral sphincter

Answer

Bulbospongiosus

Question 2

What is the nerve supply of the shown muscle?

Accepted Answer

Dorsal scapular

Answer

Suprascapular

Answer

Dorsal rami of C1

Answer

Subscapular

Question 3

In a preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome, which of the following lipids would be deficient?

Accepted Answer

Lecithin

Answer

Cardiolipin

Answer

Sphingomyelin

Answer

Phosphatidylinositol

Question 4

Patient with clinical signs of DVT had tachycardia and history of bladder cancer. According to modified Well's scoring, the probability of pulmonary embolism would be :

Accepted Answer

Intermediate

Answer

Low

Answer

High

Question 5

Which of the following is most likely to be acquired by traumatic inoculation?

Accepted Answer

Sporothrix schenckii

Answer

Coccidioides immitis

Answer

Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer

Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 6

A 60 years old Female with intermittent bleeding per vagina, endometrial collection, and thickening with anterior bulging of the fundal area on ultrasound. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Endometrial Polyp

Answer

Submucous Fibroid

Answer

Adenomyosis

Answer

Endometrial Cancer

Question 7

A 5-year-old child is having acute liver failure. Which one of the following criteria is not included in the King's College criteria?

Accepted Answer

Age < 11 years

Answer

INR > 6.5

Answer

Jaundice < 7 days before development of encephalopathy

Answer

Bilirubin > 300 mmol/L

Question 8

Anti-glaucoma drug that acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow is

Accepted Answer

Latanoprost

Answer

Dorzolamide

Answer

Pilocarpine

Answer

Timolol

Question 9

A patient was on lithium therapy for bipolar disorder for 6 months. She fasted for few days due to religious reasons and presented with coarse tremors, abdominal pain, nausea, dizziness & confusion. Which of the following should be done to assess her condition?

Accepted Answer

S. lithium levels

Answer

ECG

Answer

MRI

Answer

S. electrolytes

Question 10

A man is brought to the emergency after he fell into a man hole and injured his perineum. He feels the urge to micturate but is unable to pass urine and there is blood at the tip of the meatus with extensive swelling of the penis and scrotum. What is the location of the injury?

Accepted Answer

Bulbar urethra

Answer

Membranous urethra

Answer

Prostatic urethra

Answer

Bladder

NEET-PG 2020

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery