NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: Which pigment is responsible for the greenish-black color of neonatal stool?

Biliverdin. ***Biliverdin*** - **Biliverdin** is a green pigment formed from the breakdown of heme before it is converted to bilirubin, and it is responsible for the greenish-black color of **meconium**. - The presence of this pigment in the stool indicates the passage of **meconium**, the first stool of a newborn. *Urochrome* - **Urochrome** is responsible for the yellow color of **urine**, not stool. - It is a pigment derived from **bilirubin** that is excreted by the kidneys. *Stercobilin* - **Stercobilin** is responsible for the characteristic **brown color of adult feces**. - It is formed when **bilirubin** is metabolized by bacteria in the intestine. *Bilirubin (yellow pigment)* - **Bilirubin** is typically a **yellow-orange pigment**, not greenish-black. - While bilirubin is the precursor to stercobilin, its yellow form is more associated with **jaundice** when present in high concentrations.

Q: Which of the following is a technique/method based on behavioral sciences

Management by objectives. ***Management by objectives (MBO)*** - MBO is a **strategic management model** that aims to improve organizational performance by clearly defining objectives that are agreed to by both management and employees. - This approach is deeply rooted in **behavioral sciences** as it relies on principles of motivation, goal setting, feedback, and participation to influence employee behavior and performance. *Network analysis* - **Network analysis** is a quantitative method used to understand the structure and dynamics of relationships among entities in a system. - While it can be applied to human interactions, its primary focus is on **mathematical and computational modeling** rather than direct behavioral principles. *Systems analysis* - **Systems analysis** is a problem-solving technique that involves breaking down a system into its component parts to study how they interact and contribute to the overall system's function. - It is primarily an **engineering and information technology methodology** focused on optimizing processes and structures, not inherently on human behavior. *Decision making* - **Decision-making** is a cognitive process involving selecting a course of action from several alternatives. - While behavioral sciences study decision-making processes, decision-making itself is a **fundamental human activity** and a subject of various fields (economics, psychology) rather than a single technique primarily "based on behavioral sciences" in the same way MBO is.

Q: Admission rate bias is?

Berksonian bias. ***Berksonian bias*** - **Berksonian bias** is a form of selection bias, also known as **admission rate bias**, that occurs when different rates of admission to a hospital or clinical setting distort the association between diseases or between a disease and a risk factor. - This bias arises because the hospitalized population may not be representative of the general population, leading to spurious associations or masking real ones. *Reporting bias* - **Reporting bias** is a type of information bias where the outcome or exposure information is reported inaccurately, often due to social desirability or recall issues. - It does not specifically refer to distortions stemming from hospital admission rates. *Response bias* - **Response bias** occurs when participants in a study alter their answers or behavior from what is true due to factors like leading questions, social desirability, or acquiescence. - This is an issue related to data collection, not an unrepresentative study population due to hospital admission protocols. *None of the options* - Berksonian bias directly corresponds to the definition of admission rate bias, making this option incorrect.

Q: What is the target population for a Secondary Service Center as per the Vision 2020 initiative in India?

5 lac. ***5 lac*** - As per the **Vision 2020 initiative** (National Programme for Control of Blindness) in India, Secondary Service Centers are designed to cater to a target population of **500,000 (5 lac) individuals**. - This population size allows for efficient resource allocation and ensures comprehensive secondary-level eye care services, including cataract surgery and other specialist ophthalmological procedures, are accessible to a significant segment of the population. - Secondary Centers serve as referral units between Primary Centers and tertiary-level District Centers. *10000* - A target population of 10,000 is typically served by **Primary Vision Centers** or sub-centers, which provide basic eye screening and first-contact eye care. - Secondary Service Centers offer a broader range of specialized services that require a larger catchment area to be economically viable and effectively utilized. *50000* - A population of 50,000 is too small for a Secondary Service Center under the Vision 2020 framework. - This population size might be appropriate for enhanced Primary Care facilities, but Secondary Centers require a much larger demographic base to justify the specialized infrastructure and trained ophthalmologists necessary for comprehensive secondary eye care. *1 lac* - While 100,000 (1 lac) represents a substantial population, it is still **smaller than the intended target** for a Secondary Service Center under Vision 2020. - The centers are designed to serve **5 times this population** (5 lac), acting as major hubs for secondary eye care with surgical facilities and specialist services for multiple primary centers.

Q: A 30-year-old male presents with a one-week history of severe toothache, swelling in the floor of the mouth, and difficulty swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ludwig's angina. ***Ludwig's angina*** - The combination of a recent **severe toothache** (suggesting odontogenic infection), **swelling in the floor of the mouth**, and **difficulty swallowing (dysphagia)** are classic signs of Ludwig's angina, a rapidly spreading cellulitis of the submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces. - This condition is particularly dangerous due to its potential to cause **airway obstruction** if the swelling progresses posteriorly. *Acute parotitis* - Acute parotitis typically presents with swelling and pain primarily in the **parotid gland region**, often located anterior to the ear and extending to the angle of the jaw. - While it can cause pain and difficulty swallowing, swelling is not typically described as being predominantly in the **floor of the mouth**. *Angioneurotic edema* - Angioneurotic edema (or angioedema) is characterized by **rapid, localized swelling of subcutaneous or submucosal tissues**, often affecting the face, lips, tongue, and pharynx. - It usually lacks a preceding infectious etiology like a toothache and is typically attributed to allergic reactions or hereditary/acquired deficiencies in C1-esterase inhibitor. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A parapharyngeal abscess is a deep neck infection located in the **parapharyngeal space** lateral to the pharynx, often presenting with fever, severe sore throat, and trismus (difficulty opening the mouth). - While it can cause dysphagia and neck swelling, the primary swelling location described in the **floor of the mouth** points away from a parapharyngeal abscess as the most likely diagnosis.

Q: In the context of civil negligence against a doctor, who bears the burden of proof?

Patient. ***Patient*** - In civil negligence cases, the **plaintiff** (the patient) always bears the **burden of proof** to demonstrate that the doctor was negligent. - The patient must establish the **four elements of negligence**: duty of care, breach of duty, causation, and damages. - This follows the fundamental legal principle: **"He who asserts must prove"** (*onus probandi*). *Judicial first-degree magistrate* - A **Judicial First-Class Magistrate (JFCM)** is a **criminal court** officer who handles criminal cases, not civil negligence suits. - Civil negligence cases against doctors are filed in **Civil Courts**, not before magistrates. - Magistrates do not bear the burden of proof; they adjudicate based on evidence presented by parties. *Police not below the level of sub-inspector* - This refers to **criminal negligence** cases under **Section 304A IPC** (causing death by rash or negligent act), not civil negligence. - In criminal cases, police (Sub-Inspector or above) investigate and the **State bears the burden of proof**, not the individual parties. - Civil negligence is a **tort**, handled separately from criminal proceedings. *Doctor* - The **doctor** (defendant) is the party against whom the negligence claim is made. - While the doctor must present evidence to **rebut** the patient's claims, they do not bear the **initial burden of proof** in civil cases. - The burden only shifts to the doctor if the doctrine of **res ipsa loquitur** applies (rare circumstances where negligence is self-evident).

Q: In the context of retinal conditions, what is the primary cause of shifting fluid beneath the retina?

Exudative Retinal detachment. ***Exudative Retinal detachment*** - This condition is characterized by the accumulation of **serous fluid** beneath the retina without a retinal break, causing the retina to detach. The fluid can shift with changes in head position due to gravity, leading to a **"shifting fluid" phenomenon**. - It results from conditions that compromise the **retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)** or choroidal vasculature, such as **choroidal tumors**, **inflammatory diseases**, or **severe hypertension**, leading to leakage of fluid. *Tractional Retinal Detachment* - This type of detachment occurs when **fibrovascular membranes** on the retinal surface contract and pull the neurosensory retina away from the RPE. - The detachment is usually **immobile** or minimally mobile because it is held in place by fibrous adhesions, and therefore, does not typically exhibit shifting fluid. *Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment* - This is the most common type of retinal detachment and occurs due to a **full-thickness break or tear** in the retina, allowing vitreous fluid to pass into the subretinal space. - While fluid is present, the key feature is a retinal break, and the detached retina is typically more fixed by the flow through the break rather than gravitationally shifting. *Retinodialysis* - Retinodialysis is a specific type of **rhegmatogenous retinal detachment** characterized by a **disinsertion of the retina from its ora serrata attachment**, often due to trauma. - Similar to other rhegmatogenous detachments, fluid accumulates in the subretinal space, but the primary cause is the tear/disinsertion, and it doesn't primarily manifest as a shifting fluid characteristic, which is more indicative of exudative causes.

Q: What is the first-line drug for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

Bisphosphonates. ***Bisphosphonates*** - **Bisphosphonates** are the **first-line treatment** for osteoporosis due to their proven efficacy in reducing fracture risk by inhibiting osteoclast activity. - They bind to bone mineral and are internalized by osteoclasts, leading to their **apoptosis** and decreased bone resorption. *OCP* - **Oral contraceptives (OCP)** are not used for treating established osteoporosis; they may have a minor protective effect against bone loss in premenopausal women but are not a primary therapeutic agent postmenopause. - OCPs primarily contain **estrogen and/or progestin** and are used for contraception and managing menstrual irregularities. *Raloxifene* - **Raloxifene** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)** that can be used for osteoporosis prevention and treatment, especially if there's a concern for breast cancer, but it is typically a second-line option. - Although it mimics estrogen's beneficial effects on bone, it does not have the same overall fracture reduction efficacy as bisphosphonates and can increase the risk of **venous thromboembolism**. *Strontium* - **Strontium ranelate** is an anti-osteoporotic agent that both inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation. - Its use has been limited due to concerns about serious side effects, including an increased risk of **cardiovascular events** and **venous thromboembolism**, making it a less favored option compared to bisphosphonates.

Q: Identify the radiological sign of Ischemic colitis from the image provided.

Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis. ***Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis*** - The image displays prominent **indentations (thumbprinting)** along the bowel wall, especially in the descending colon (indicated by arrows). These indentations are caused by **edema** and **hemorrhage** in the submucosal layer due to ischemia. - This characteristic appearance on a barium enema or CT scan is a classic radiological sign highly suggestive of **ischemic colitis**. *Diverticulitis* - Diverticulitis typically presents with **saccular outpouchings** (diverticula) that become inflamed, potentially showing wall thickening or **pericolonic fat stranding**. - This image does not show typical diverticula or signs of severe inflammation associated with diverticulitis, but rather diffuse mucosal changes. *Appendicitis* - Appendicitis is characterized by inflammation of the **vermiform appendix**, typically seen as a **dilated**, non-compressible appendix with surrounding fat stranding in the right lower quadrant. - The radiological findings in the image are of the colon, not the appendix, and are inconsistent with acute appendicitis. *None of the options* - The image presents a clear and characteristic radiological sign that points to a specific diagnosis, making this option incorrect. - The presence of **thumbprinting** is a well-established indicator for ischemic colitis.

Q: What does a bluish-purple discoloration behind the mastoid indicate?

Battle sign. ***Battle sign*** - A **bluish-purple discoloration behind the mastoid** (postauricular ecchymosis) is a classic sign of a **basilar skull fracture**, particularly involving the middle cranial fossa. - This bruising is caused by the extravasation of blood from the fracture site into the soft tissues over the mastoid process. *Bezold abscess* - A Bezold abscess is a rare complication of **mastoiditis**, where infection erodes through the mastoid tip and spreads to the soft tissues of the neck. - It presents as a **painful swelling in the neck** and is typically not associated with a bluish-purple discoloration *behind* the mastoid unless there is significant necrotic tissue or a secondary hematoma, which is not the primary feature. *Both A and B* - These conditions represent distinct pathologies, one related to **trauma (Battle sign)** and the other to **infection (Bezold abscess)**. - While both involve the mastoid region, their underlying causes and typical presentations are different. *None of the options* - The image directly displays the characteristic bruising of a Battle sign, making this option incorrect. - The appearance is highly indicative of a specific medical condition.

Question 1

Which pigment is responsible for the greenish-black color of neonatal stool?

Accepted Answer

Biliverdin

Answer

Urochrome

Answer

Stercobilin

Answer

Bilirubin (yellow pigment)

Question 2

Which of the following is a technique/method based on behavioral sciences

Accepted Answer

Management by objectives

Answer

Network analysis

Answer

Systems analysis

Answer

Decision making

Question 3

Admission rate bias is?

Accepted Answer

Berksonian bias

Answer

Reporting bias

Answer

Response bias

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

What is the target population for a Secondary Service Center as per the Vision 2020 initiative in India?

Accepted Answer

5 lac

Answer

10000

Answer

50000

Answer

1 lac

Question 5

A 30-year-old male presents with a one-week history of severe toothache, swelling in the floor of the mouth, and difficulty swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Ludwig's angina

Answer

Acute parotitis

Answer

Angioneurotic edema

Answer

Parapharyngeal abscess

Question 6

In the context of civil negligence against a doctor, who bears the burden of proof?

Accepted Answer

Patient

Answer

Judicial first-degree magistrate

Answer

Police not below the level of sub-inspector

Answer

Doctor

Question 7

In the context of retinal conditions, what is the primary cause of shifting fluid beneath the retina?

Accepted Answer

Exudative Retinal detachment

Answer

Tractional Retinal Detachment

Answer

Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Answer

Retinodialysis

Question 8

What is the first-line drug for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

Accepted Answer

Bisphosphonates

Answer

OCP

Answer

Raloxifene

Answer

Strontium

Question 9

Identify the radiological sign of Ischemic colitis from the image provided.

Accepted Answer

Thumbprinting sign of Ischemic colitis

Answer

Diverticulitis

Answer

Appendicitis

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

What does a bluish-purple discoloration behind the mastoid indicate?

Accepted Answer

Battle sign

Answer

Bezold abscess

Answer

Both A and B

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2020

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dental

Forensic Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pharmacology

Radiology

Surgery