NEET-PG 2020 Practice Questions

Q: What does the image of the Capnograph depict?

Capnograph indicating spontaneous respiration. ***Capnograph indicating spontaneous respiration*** - The characteristic dip in the **EtCO2 waveform** during the plateau phase (phaselll) is indicative of a breath taken by the individual which is a classic finding of **spontaneous respiration**. This dip is because when a patient takes a breath in, fresh gas with no CO2 is pulled into the sampling line momentarily decreasing the measured CO2. - This pattern is often referred to as a "**curare cleft**" or "**respiratory indentation**," and it signifies incomplete paralysis or return of spontaneous breathing. *Capnograph during inspiration* - During normal inspiration, there is no CO2 in the inhaled air, so the capnograph reading would theoretically drop to **zero** or near-zero, not exhibit a waveform with a plateau. - The baseline of the capnograph reflects inspiration, which should be flat (zero CO2). *Capnograph showing inspiration with cardiac oscillations* - Cardiac oscillations typically appear as **small rhythmic fluctuations** on the baseline or the expiratory plateau, synchronized with the heartbeat. - These oscillations are usually much smaller and do not present as distinct, sharp dips within the expiratory plateau as seen in the image. *Capnograph during expiration* - During a normal expiration, the capnograph waveform rises from a baseline of zero (phase I, **dead space ventilation**) to a plateau (phase III, **alveolar gas emptying**) with a peak value, before returning to baseline during inspiration. - While the image shows expiration with a plateau, the key feature of the dip during the plateau is more specific to spontaneous respiration than just general expiration.

Q: Addition of which Amino Acid will increase UV absorption

Tryptophan. ***Tryptophan*** - **Tryptophan** contains an **indole ring** with a conjugated pi system responsible for strong **UV light absorption** at approximately **280 nm**. - Its unique aromatic structure allows it to absorb UV light, making it a key amino acid for protein quantification using **spectrophotometry**. *Leucine* - **Leucine** is an **aliphatic amino acid** with a non-polar side chain and lacks chromophores. - It does not significantly absorb UV light in the typical range used for protein analysis. *Proline* - **Proline** is an **imino acid** with a unique cyclic structure, but it lacks aromatic rings or conjugated double bonds. - It does not absorb UV light significantly at wavelengths above 230 nm. *Arginine* - **Arginine** is a **basic amino acid** with a guanidinium group, but this functional group does not contribute to UV absorption in the 280 nm range. - Its presence does not enhance the UV absorbance of proteins.

Q: In which of the following methods of management is the benefit measured in natural units?

Cost-effectiveness analysis. ***Cost-effectiveness analysis*** - In **cost-effectiveness analysis**, the benefits of a healthcare intervention are measured in **natural units** (e.g., lives saved, years of life gained, cases cured, reduction in symptoms). - This method compares the costs of different interventions to achieve a specific health outcome, expressed in a non-monetary unit. *Network analysis* - **Network analysis** is a project management technique used to plan and control complex projects, often for scheduling tasks and identifying critical paths. - Its primary focus is on task dependencies and timelines, not on measuring benefits of management interventions in natural units. *Cost-benefit analysis* - In **cost-benefit analysis**, both the costs and the benefits of an intervention are converted into **monetary units**. - This allows for a comparison where a project is deemed beneficial if its monetary benefits outweigh its monetary costs. *Program budgeting system* - A **program budgeting system** is a financial planning and management tool that links expenditures to the achievement of specific program objectives. - While it focuses on resource allocation and outcomes, it does not primarily measure benefits in natural health units.

Q: A sexually active female presenting with profuse frothy foul-smelling discharge with intense itching. Strawberry cervix revealed on examination. What will be the diagnosis?

Trichomonas vaginalis. **Trichomonas vaginalis** - The classic presentation of **profuse, frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge** with **intense itching** and the presence of a **strawberry cervix** are highly characteristic of a *Trichomonas vaginalis* infection. - *Trichomonas vaginalis* is a **motile protozoan** and a common sexually transmitted infection. *Bacterial vaginosis* - While bacterial vaginosis (BV) causes a **foul-smelling discharge** (often described as "fishy"), it is typically **thin and grayish-white**, not frothy, and does not cause a strawberry cervix. - BV is caused by an **overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria** and a decrease in lactobacilli, leading to an elevated vaginal pH. *Candidiasis* - Candidiasis (yeast infection) presents with a **thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" discharge** and intense itching, but the discharge is usually odorless and it does not cause a frothy discharge or strawberry cervix. - It is caused by an **overgrowth of *Candida* species**, primarily *Candida albicans*, and is not typically sexually transmitted. *None of the options* - Given the classic constellation of symptoms and definitive signs, a specific diagnosis can be made, making this option incorrect.

Q: HBsAg is based on which principle

ELISA. ***ELISA*** - **Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)** is a widely used laboratory test to detect and quantify antigens (like HBsAg) or antibodies in a sample. - It involves an enzyme-linked antibody that reacts with a substrate to produce a detectable signal, making it highly sensitive and specific for **HBsAg detection**. *Immunochromatography assays* - These are typically **rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs)** that provide quick qualitative results, often used for point-of-care testing. - While they can detect HBsAg, they generally have lower sensitivity and specificity compared to ELISA. *Chemiluminescence* - This is a detection method used in some immunoassays where a chemical reaction emits light, often providing higher sensitivity than colorimetric detection. - While it can be incorporated into HBsAg testing platforms, it is a *detection principle* rather than the primary assay principle like ELISA itself. *Immunofluorescence* - This technique uses **fluorescently labeled antibodies** to visualize antigens in cells or tissues under a fluorescence microscope [1]. - It is used for localization and identification of antigens, but not typically the primary method for routine quantitative HBsAg serology [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 259-260.

Q: A 30-year-old male presents with swelling around the knee joint. Histopathological examination reveals many giant cells interspersed with mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Giant cell tumour. ***Giant cell tumour*** - The presence of **giant cells** interspersed with **mononuclear cells** in the histopathological examination is characteristic of giant cell tumors [1], often found around the **knee joint** [1]. - Typically occurs in **young adults** and is associated with **subarticular bone lesions** that cause joint swelling [1]. *Osteosarcoma* - Generally presents with **extensive bone destruction** and **persistent pain**, along with a mass, not primarily giant cell formation. - Commonly involves individuals aged **10-20 years**, making it less likely in a 30-year-old male. *Ewing's sarcoma* - Characterized by **small round blue cells** on histology, often with **more aggressive behavior** and less prominent giant cells. - Typically affects the **pelvis** and **long bones**, rather than directly around the knee joint. *Chondrosarcoma* - Primarily characterized by **cartilage formation** with no prominent giant cells, often leading to a confusing diagnosis in imaging. - Usually occurs in **older adults** and does not typically present with predominant giant cells in histopathology. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1205-1206.

Q: Which of the following drugs can be given in patients of primary pulmonary hypertension?

Bosentan. ***Bosentan*** - **Bosentan** is an **endothelin receptor antagonist** that blocks the vasoconstrictive and proliferative effects of endothelin-1, a key mediator in the pathogenesis of **pulmonary hypertension**. - It is an FDA-approved medication specifically used for the treatment of **pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)**, improving exercise capacity and delaying clinical worsening. *Icatibant* - **Icatibant** is a **bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist** used in the treatment of **hereditary angioedema**. - It has no known role or efficacy in the management of **primary pulmonary hypertension**. *Labetalol* - **Labetalol** is a **beta-blocker** with **alpha-1 adrenergic blocking activity** used primarily for systemic **hypertension** and **hypertensive emergencies**. - Beta-blockers are generally **contraindicated** in pulmonary hypertension as they can worsen right heart function and lead to clinical deterioration. *Sodium nitroprusside* - **Sodium nitroprusside** is a **direct arterial and venous vasodilator** used in hypertensive crises and severe heart failure by reducing both preload and afterload. - While it can lower systemic blood pressure, its use in pulmonary hypertension is **limited** due to the risk of **systemic hypotension** and the lack of selective pulmonary vasodilation compared to other agents.

Q: A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed a blurring vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?

Chloroquine. ***Chloroquine*** - **Chloroquine (and hydroxychloroquine)** can accumulate in the **cornea**, leading to **corneal opacity** (vortex keratopathy or cornea verticillata) and **retinopathy**, manifesting as blurring vision. - While corneal changes are usually reversible upon discontinuation, the retinal toxicity, particularly **maculopathy** (bull's eye maculopathy), can be permanent and severe. *Sulfasalazine* - Common side effects include **gastrointestinal upset**, headache, skin rash, and **bone marrow suppression**. - It is not typically associated with **corneal opacity** or significant ocular toxicity. *Leflunomide* - Known for side effects such as **hepatotoxicity**, gastrointestinal issues (diarrhea), **alopecia**, and **hypertension**. - **Ocular side effects** like corneal opacity are not characteristic of leflunomide use. *Methotrexate* - Primary side effects include **bone marrow suppression**, **hepatotoxicity**, **mucositis**, and **pulmonary fibrosis**. - Although it can cause ocular side effects like **conjunctivitis**, it is not a common cause of **corneal opacity**.

Q: What is the reflex in which there is inhibition of gastric emptying when there is acid and hypertonic solution in the duodenum?

Enterogastric. ***Enterogastric*** - The **enterogastric reflex** is initiated when the duodenum detects the presence of acid and hypertonic solutions, signifying that the chyme is not yet ready for further digestion and absorption. - This reflex inhibits **gastric emptying** to allow more time for the stomach to process its contents and for the duodenum to neutralize the acid and dilute the hypertonic solution. *Gastroileal* - The **gastroileal reflex** increases motility in the ileum when the stomach is distended, facilitating the movement of chyme into the large intestine. - This reflex does not primarily involve the inhibition of gastric emptying due to duodenal contents. *Gastrocolic* - The **gastrocolic reflex** increases the motility of the colon in response to the stretching of the stomach by food. - Its main function is to prepare the large intestine for upcoming chyme and does not directly inhibit gastric emptying. *Myenteric* - The **myenteric plexus** (Auerbach's plexus) is a network of neurons located between the longitudinal and circular layers of the muscularis propria throughout the gastrointestinal tract. - While it plays a crucial role in controlling gut motility and is involved in numerous reflexes, it refers to a neural plexus rather than a specific reflex mechanism for inhibiting gastric emptying due to duodenal stimuli.

Question 1

What does the image of the Capnograph depict?

Accepted Answer

Capnograph indicating spontaneous respiration

Answer

Capnograph during inspiration

Answer

Capnograph showing inspiration with cardiac oscillations

Answer

Capnograph during expiration

Question 2

Addition of which Amino Acid will increase UV absorption

Accepted Answer

Tryptophan

Answer

Leucine

Answer

Proline

Answer

Arginine

Question 3

In which of the following methods of management is the benefit measured in natural units?

Accepted Answer

Cost-effectiveness analysis

Answer

Network analysis

Answer

Cost-benefit analysis

Answer

Program budgeting system

Question 4

A sexually active female presenting with profuse frothy foul-smelling discharge with intense itching. Strawberry cervix revealed on examination. What will be the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer

Bacterial vaginosis

Answer

Candidiasis

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

HBsAg is based on which principle

Accepted Answer

ELISA

Answer

Chemiluminescence

Answer

Immunofluorescence

Answer

Immunochromatography assays

Question 6

A 30-year-old male presents with swelling around the knee joint. Histopathological examination reveals many giant cells interspersed with mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Giant cell tumour

Answer

Osteosarcoma

Answer

Ewing's sarcoma

Answer

Chondrosarcoma

Question 7

Which of the following drugs can be given in patients of primary pulmonary hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Bosentan

Answer

Icatibant

Answer

Sodium nitroprusside

Answer

Labetalol

Question 8

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed a blurring vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?

Accepted Answer

Chloroquine

Answer

Sulfasalazine

Answer

Leflunomide

Answer

Methotrexate

Question 9

What is the reflex in which there is inhibition of gastric emptying when there is acid and hypertonic solution in the duodenum?

Accepted Answer

Enterogastric

Answer

Gastroileal

Answer

Gastrocolic

Answer

Myenteric

Question 10

Which statement about retrosternal goiter is correct?

Accepted Answer

CT chest is recommended for evaluation of retrosternal goiter.

Answer

Surgery should be avoided in all cases.

Answer

All patients require surgical intervention.

Answer

Blood supply primarily comes from the thyroid arteries.

NEET-PG 2020

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery