NEET-PG 2020 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms. On examination patient was conscious and alert, pulse was 110 beats/ min and bilateral wheeze present. All of the following are true in the management of the patient except:

Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated. ***Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated*** - This statement is **false**, therefore the correct exception. **Non-invasive ventilation (NIV)** is often indicated and beneficial in the management of acute exacerbations of COPD, especially in patients with **respiratory acidosis** or persistent dyspnea, as it can reduce the need for intubation and improve outcomes [2]. - The patient's presentation (conscious, alert, wheeze, tachycardia) suggests an acute exacerbation, for which NIV is a key intervention unless there are absolute contraindications like cardiac arrest or inability to protect the airway [3]. *Permissible hypercapnia allowed* - **Permissive hypercapnia** is a valid strategy in managing acute exacerbations of COPD, particularly during mechanical ventilation. The goal is to maintain an adequate pH (e.g., >7.20-7.25) rather than normalizing CO2, to avoid **barotrauma** and **volutrauma** from aggressive ventilation [3]. - This approach acknowledges that some CO2 retention is acceptable as long as acidosis is not severe, protecting the lungs from excessive pressure. *Inhalation with salbutamol* - **Inhaled bronchodilators**, such as **salbutamol (a short-acting beta-agonist)**, are a cornerstone of treatment for acute COPD exacerbations [1]. They act rapidly to relieve **bronchospasm** and improve airflow, addressing the wheeze observed in the patient. - Frequent administration of these agents is crucial in the initial management to open up the airways and reduce air trapping. *I/V steroids* - **Systemic corticosteroids**, such as intravenous methylprednisolone or oral prednisone, are essential in managing acute COPD exacerbations. They reduce **airway inflammation** and swelling, leading to improved lung function and reduced recovery time. - Steroids are typically given for a short course (e.g., 5-7 days) to minimize side effects while maximizing therapeutic benefits.

Q: Which of the following is not a clinical presentation of Pituitary Apoplexy?

Hypertension. ***Hypertension*** - Pituitary apoplexy often leads to **adrenal insufficiency** due to damage to the pituitary gland, which in turn causes **hypotension**, not hypertension. - The sudden onset of severe pituitary dysfunction typically results in a drop in blood pressure rather than an increase. *Vomiting* - **Vomiting** is a common symptom of pituitary apoplexy, often accompanying severe headache due to increased intracranial pressure or hormonal imbalances [1]. - The sudden mass effect of the hemorrhage or infarction can irritate surrounding structures, leading to nausea and vomiting. *Headache* - A **sudden, severe headache** is the most common presenting symptom of pituitary apoplexy, often described as a "thunderclap" headache [1]. - This intense headache is caused by rapid expansion of the pituitary mass and irritation of the **dura mater**. *Hypotension* - **Hypotension** is a classic feature of pituitary apoplexy, resulting from acute **adrenal insufficiency** where insufficient ACTH leads to decreased cortisol production [1]. - This hormonal deficiency impairs the body's ability to maintain blood pressure and respond to stress [1].

Q: Which of the following is NOT the feature of secondary ACTH deficiency?

Hyperpigmentation. ***Hyperpigmentation*** - **Hyperpigmentation** occurs in **primary adrenal insufficiency** (Addison's disease) due to high levels of **ACTH** and co-secreted **melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)** [1]. - In **secondary ACTH deficiency**, ACTH levels are low, so there is no increased stimulation of melanocytes, and thus **hyperpigmentation is absent** [2]. *Anorexia* - **Anorexia** can be a feature of both **primary** and **secondary adrenal insufficiency** due to the general catabolic effects of **cortisol deficiency** and overall endocrine dysfunction. - Reduced cortisol can lead to altered metabolism and appetite, contributing to loss of appetite [2]. *Fatigue* - **Fatigue** is a common and prominent symptom in both **primary** and **secondary adrenal insufficiency** due to **cortisol deficiency** [2]. - Lack of adequate cortisol affects energy metabolism, muscle function, and overall well-being, leading to profound tiredness. *Hypotension* - **Hypotension** is more characteristic of **primary adrenal insufficiency** due to both **cortisol** and **aldosterone deficiency** [1]. - In **secondary ACTH deficiency**, aldosterone secretion is typically preserved (as it's regulated by the **renin-angiotensin system**), but severe **cortisol deficiency** can still contribute to mild hypotension [2].

Q: A patient presented with clinical features of ataxia and incoordination. It is most likely due to involvement of which artery among the following.

Superior cerebellar. ***Superior cerebellar*** - The superior cerebellar artery supplies the **superior cerebellum**, which is critical for **coordination** and balance [1]. - Involvement of this artery commonly leads to **ataxia**, **dysarthria**, and **ipsilateral limb incoordination** [3]. *Middle cerebral* - The middle cerebral artery primarily supplies the **lateral surface of the cerebrum**, including motor and sensory cortices. - Strokes in this territory typically cause **contralateral hemiparesis**, **aphasia**, and **hemianopia**, not ataxia as a primary symptom [2]. *Posterior cerebellar* - The posterior cerebral artery supplies the **occipital lobe**, **thalamus**, and parts of the temporal lobe. - Occlusion often results in **visual field defects** (hemianopia), **memory deficits**, and sometimes **sensory loss**, but not isolated ataxia [2]. *Anterior cerebral* - The anterior cerebral artery supplies the **medial frontal and parietal lobes**. - Its occlusion typically causes **contralateral leg weakness** (hemiparesis), **behavioral changes**, and **urinary incontinence**.

Q: What is the differentiating feature between irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease?

Stool calprotectin. ***Stool calprotectin*** - **Stool calprotectin** is a reliable biomarker used to differentiate between **Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)** and **Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)**. It's a protein released by neutrophils during intestinal inflammation. - Elevated levels of **calprotectin** strongly suggest **mucosal inflammation** characteristic of IBD (Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis), while normal levels are typical in IBS, which lacks inflammation [1]. *pain in abdomen* - **Abdominal pain** is a common symptom in both IBS and IBD. In IBS, it's often linked to altered bowel habits and is a key diagnostic criterion [1]. - In IBD, abdominal pain is typically due to inflammation, strictures, or abscesses, but its presence alone does not differentiate the conditions . *Diarrhoea* - **Diarrhea** is a prominent symptom in both IBS and IBD. In IBS, it can be a predominant feature (IBS-D), often associated with urgency [1]. - In IBD, diarrhea is usually due to inflammation disrupting normal absorption and secretion, and it may contain blood or mucus . *Mucus in stools* - The presence of **mucus in stools** can occur in both IBS and IBD. In IBS, it's often present without blood and is generally considered part of altered bowel function [1]. - In IBD, mucus in stools, particularly when accompanied by blood, strongly suggests active intestinal inflammation and mucosal damage .

Q: A 32-year-old patient with Restless leg syndrome comes to the OPD. What is the most appropriate first line treatment?

Gabapentin. ***Gabapentin*** - **Gabapentin** and other alpha-2-delta ligands (e.g., pregabalin) are considered **first-line agents** for moderate to severe Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS), particularly when symptoms are bothersome and daily. - They work by modulating **calcium channels** and are effective in reducing RLS symptoms with a generally favorable side effect profile. *Iron Supplementation* - **Iron supplementation** is appropriate as first-line treatment only if **serum ferritin levels** are below 75 mcg/L, indicating iron deficiency. - While RLS is associated with **iron deficiency**, it's not the universal first-line treatment without biochemical confirmation [1]. *Pramipexole* - **Dopamine agonists** like pramipexole are effective for RLS but are generally **second-line treatments** due to concerns about augmentation (worsening of RLS symptoms) and impulse control disorders. - Augmentation is a significant side effect where symptoms worsen paradoxically with continued use, particularly with higher doses. *Vitamin B12* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can cause neurological symptoms, but it is **not a primary cause or treatment** for Restless Legs Syndrome. - Supplementation with **Vitamin B12** would only be considered if a confirmed deficiency exists, which is not stated as a contributing factor in this patient.

Q: Superior temporal gyrus lesion leads to?

Wernicke's aphasia. ***Wernicke's aphasia*** - A lesion in the **superior temporal gyrus** (Wernicke's area) leads to Wernicke's aphasia, characterized by impaired **comprehension of language** [1]. - Patients with Wernicke's aphasia exhibit **fluent but meaningless speech** (word salad) and are often unaware of their deficits [1]. *Anomic aphasia* - Characterized by difficulty finding words, particularly nouns and verbs, and is often associated with lesions in the **angular gyrus** or **temporal lobe** [1]. - Speech remains fluent and grammatically correct, but it is marked by frequent pauses and circumlocutions as the individual struggles to retrieve specific words. *Broca's aphasia* - Results from damage to **Broca's area** in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus, causing **non-fluent speech** and difficulty with speech production [1]. - While comprehension is relatively preserved, patients struggle to form complete sentences and may exhibit agrammatism. *Non-fluent aphasia* - A broad category of aphasias, including Broca's aphasia, where speech production is notably impaired, and the output is effortful and characterized by **agrammatism** and **short, telegraphic sentences**. - **Wernicke's aphasia** is typically considered a **fluent aphasia**, as speech production itself is not interrupted, though its content is often incomprehensible [1].

Q: Which is the most common site of gastrinoma in MEN 1 syndrome?

Duodenum. ***Duodenum*** - In **MEN 1 syndrome**, gastrinomas (gastrin-secreting tumors) are most commonly found in the **duodenum**, often multiple and small. - This location accounts for a significant majority of gastrinomas, particularly in patients with **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)** associated with MEN 1. *Stomach* - While gastrinomas can occasionally be found in the stomach, this is a **much less common site** compared to the duodenum, especially in the context of MEN 1 syndrome. - Gastric gastrinomas are typically associated with conditions like **atrophic gastritis** and **pernicious anemia**, leading to G-cell hyperplasia and often hypergastrinemia, but tend to be less aggressive. *Ileum* - The **ileum** is an **uncommon site** for gastrinomas; these types of neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) are rarely found there. - NETs in the ileum are more typically associated with the secretion of other hormones, such as **serotonin**, leading to carcinoid syndrome, rather than gastrin. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas in the **jejunum** are also **rare**, similar to the ileum. - While neuroendocrine tumors can arise throughout the small bowel, the jejunum is not a typical or primary location for gastrin-producing tumors within the context of **MEN 1**.

Q: Which of the following is true about polyaeritis nodosa?

HBsAg is positive in 30% patients. ### HBsAg is positive in 30% patients - **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** is strongly associated with **hepatitis B virus (HBV)** infection; about 30% of patients with PAN have evidence of current or past HBV infection, particularly **HBsAg positivity**. - This association suggests that HBV infection can trigger the immune complex vasculitis characteristic of PAN. ### It shows fibrinoid necrosis in large blood vessels - PAN primarily affects **medium-sized muscular arteries**, not typically large blood vessels [1]. - The inflammation causes **fibrinoid necrosis** and aneurysmal dilations in these medium-sized arteries [1]. ### It has ANCA positivity - **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** is generally considered an **ANCA-negative vasculitis**. - **ANCA positivity** (especially c-ANCA/PR3-ANCA or p-ANCA/MPO-ANCA) is characteristic of other small-vessel vasculitides like **Granulomatosis with polyangiitis** or **Microscopic polyangiitis**. ### Affected individuals have involvement of pulmonary circulation. - A defining characteristic of **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** is that it generally **spares the pulmonary circulation** [1]. - Pulmonary involvement is more commonly seen in other vasculitides, such as **Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's)** or **Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)**.

Q: A patient undergoes bilateral adrenalectomy in view of bilateral pheochromocytoma. A day after surgery patient develops lethargy, fatigue and loss of appetite. On examination BP is 90/ 60 mmHg, pulse rate of 74 beats/min. No evidence of loss of volume. The likely cause is?

Cortisol deficiency. ***Cortisol deficiency*** - Following **bilateral adrenalectomy**, the body loses its primary source of **cortisol**, a critical hormone for maintaining blood pressure and energy levels. [1] - The symptoms of **lethargy, fatigue, loss of appetite, and hypotension** are classic signs of **acute adrenal insufficiency** or **adrenal crisis** due to cortisol deficiency. [1] *Cardiogenic shock* - This condition involves severe pump failure of the heart, leading to **reduced cardiac output**. - While hypotension is present, the symptom complex of fatigue and loss of appetite shortly after adrenal surgery points away from primary cardiac dysfunction in the absence of preceding cardiac events. *Septic shock* - Characterized by hypotension, signs of infection, and organ dysfunction due to a systemic inflammatory response. - There is no mention of fever, leukocytosis, or other signs of infection in the patient's presentation. *Hypovolemic shock* - Caused by a significant reduction in circulating blood volume, often due to hemorrhage or severe dehydration. - The question explicitly states "No evidence of loss of volume," ruling out hypovolemic shock.

Question 1

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms. On examination patient was conscious and alert, pulse was 110 beats/ min and bilateral wheeze present. All of the following are true in the management of the patient except:

Accepted Answer

Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated

Answer

Permissible hypercapnia allowed

Answer

Inhalation with salbutamol

Answer

I/V steroids

Question 2

Which of the following is not a clinical presentation of Pituitary Apoplexy?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Vomiting

Answer

Headache

Answer

Hypotension

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT the feature of secondary ACTH deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Hyperpigmentation

Answer

Anorexia

Answer

Fatigue

Answer

Hypotension

Question 4

A patient presented with clinical features of ataxia and incoordination. It is most likely due to involvement of which artery among the following.

Accepted Answer

Superior cerebellar

Answer

Middle cerebral

Answer

Posterior cerebral

Answer

Anterior cerebral

Question 5

What is the differentiating feature between irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease?

Accepted Answer

Stool calprotectin

Answer

pain in abdomen

Answer

Diarrhoea

Answer

Mucus in stools

Question 6

A 32-year-old patient with Restless leg syndrome comes to the OPD. What is the most appropriate first line treatment?

Accepted Answer

Gabapentin

Answer

Iron Supplementation

Answer

Pramipexole

Answer

Vitamin B12

Question 7

Superior temporal gyrus lesion leads to?

Accepted Answer

Wernicke's aphasia

Answer

Anomic aphasia

Answer

Broca's aphasia

Answer

Non-fluent aphasia

Question 8

Which is the most common site of gastrinoma in MEN 1 syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Stomach

Answer

Ileum

Answer

Jejunum

Question 9

Which of the following is true about polyaeritis nodosa?

Accepted Answer

HBsAg is positive in 30% patients

Answer

It shows fibrinoid necrosis in large blood vessels

Answer

It has ANCA positivity

Answer

Affected individuals have involvement of pulmonary circulation.

Question 10

A patient undergoes bilateral adrenalectomy in view of bilateral pheochromocytoma. A day after surgery patient develops lethargy, fatigue and loss of appetite. On examination BP is 90/ 60 mmHg, pulse rate of 74 beats/min. No evidence of loss of volume. The likely cause is?

Accepted Answer

Cortisol deficiency

Answer

Cardiogenic shock

Answer

Septic shock

Answer

Hypovolemic shock

NEET-PG 2020 — Internal Medicine