NEET-PG 2018 Practice Questions

Q: What is the primary tensor of the vocal cords?

Cricothyroid. ***Cricothyroid*** - The **cricothyroid muscle** is the principal tensor of the vocal cords, responsible for stretching and thinning them. - It achieves this by tilting the **thyroid cartilage** forward relative to the **cricoid cartilage**, increasing the distance between the **thyroid** and **arytenoid cartilages**. *Lateral Cricoarytenoid* - This muscle primarily functions as an **adductor** of the vocal cords, bringing them together. - It rotates the **arytenoid cartilages** medially, closing the **rima glottidis**. *Thyroarytenoids* - The **thyroarytenoid muscles** are located within the vocal cords and primarily act to **shorten and relax** the vocal cords. - They also contribute to **adduction** and can internally tense the vocal folds, but their main role is *not* primary tension. *Posterior cricoarytenoids* - The **posterior cricoarytenoid muscles** are the *only* muscles responsible for **abducting** (opening) the vocal cords. - They rotate the **arytenoid cartilages** laterally, thus widening the **rima glottidis**.

Q: In Cystinuria, which of the following amino acids is not affected by the reabsorption defect?

Citrulline. ***Citrulline*** - **Citrulline** is the correct answer because it is **not a dibasic amino acid** and does not share the same renal tubular transporter as the affected amino acids. - In cystinuria, the defect involves the **rBAT-b0,+AT transporter system**, which specifically transports **cystine** and **dibasic amino acids** (ornithine, arginine, lysine) - remembered by the mnemonic **COAL**. - Citrulline uses a **different transport mechanism** and therefore its reabsorption remains **normal** in cystinuria. *Lysine* - **Lysine** is one of the four amino acids affected in cystinuria (part of the COAL group). - Being a **dibasic amino acid**, its reabsorption is **impaired**, leading to increased urinary excretion. - This is **incorrect** as the question asks for the amino acid NOT affected. *Arginine* - **Arginine** is a **dibasic amino acid** whose reabsorption is significantly reduced in cystinuria. - It is part of the COAL group and shows **elevated urinary concentration** in affected individuals. - This is **incorrect** as arginine IS affected by the reabsorption defect. *Ornithine* - **Ornithine** is another **dibasic amino acid** included in the COAL group. - Its renal tubular reabsorption is **defective** in cystinuria, resulting in increased urinary excretion. - This is **incorrect** as ornithine IS affected by the transport defect.

Q: Patient presenting with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, Which investigation is to be performed next that will help you diagnose the condition?

ANCA. ### ANCA - The combination of **cutaneous vasculitis**, **glomerulonephritis**, and **peripheral neuropathy** points towards a small-vessel vasculitis, for which **ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)** testing is crucial [1]. - ANCA is highly specific for conditions like **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)** and **Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA)** [1]. ### RA factor - **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is primarily associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**, which typically presents with symmetrical polyarthritis, not the constellation of symptoms described. - While RF can be positive in some vasculitides, it is not the most specific initial test for the given clinical presentation. ### Hbsag - **Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg)** typically screens for **Hepatitis B infection**, which can cause **polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)**, a medium-vessel vasculitis. - However, the patient's symptoms (cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis) are more characteristic of **small-vessel vasculitis**, making ANCA a more direct investigation [1]. ### MIF - **MIF (Macrophage Migration Inhibitory Factor)** is a cytokine involved in inflammation, but it is not a routine diagnostic marker for vasculitis. - It is not used as a primary investigation to diagnose specific autoimmune or inflammatory conditions like vasculitis.

Q: Which is not included in AIDS related complex?

Ectopic pregnancy. ***Ectopic pregnancy*** - **Ectopic pregnancy** is a gynecological condition related to reproductive health and is **not a direct manifestation** of HIV infection or one of the opportunistic infections/conditions characteristic of AIDS-related complex. - While HIV can affect overall health during pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy itself is a different medical issue. *Recurrent genital candidiasis* - **Recurrent genital candidiasis** can be a sign of **diminished immune function** in HIV-positive women [1]. - It is often considered an AIDS-defining condition or a common opportunistic infection seen in the progression of HIV to AIDS-related complex [1]. *Generalised lymphadenopathy* - **Generalized lymphadenopathy**, specifically **persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL)**, is a common early manifestation of HIV infection [1]. - It reflects ongoing immune activation and is part of the spectrum of conditions included in AIDS-related complex [1]. *Chronic diarrhea* - **Chronic diarrhea** (lasting more than one month) is a frequent and significant symptom in individuals with HIV infection, particularly as the disease progresses [1]. - It can be caused by various opportunistic infections or directly by HIV, and is a component of AIDS-related complex or AIDS-defining illness [1].

Q: Which organism is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?

E.coli. ***E.coli*** - **E.coli** is the most common cause of **acute bacterial prostatitis**, accounting for a significant majority of cases. - It is a **gram-negative rod** commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend into the urinary tract and prostate. *Enterococcus* - While **Enterococcus species** can cause urinary tract infections and, less commonly, prostatitis, they are a distant second to E.coli in frequency. - They are **gram-positive cocci** and are often associated with catheter-associated infections or healthcare-acquired infections. *Streptococcus viridans* - **Streptococcus viridans** group bacteria are typically commensals of the oral cavity and are more known for causing **endocarditis** or dental infections. - They are not a common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis. *Peptostreptococcus* - **Peptostreptococcus** is a genus of **anaerobic gram-positive cocci** commonly found in the normal flora of the mouth, gastrointestinal tract, and vagina. - They are typically involved in **polymicrobial anaerobic infections** but are not a primary or common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis.

Q: Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in

Measles infection. ***Measles infection*** - **Warthin-Finkeldey cells** are characteristic large, multinucleated giant cells with acidophilic intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions found in lymphoid tissues during the prodromal phase of **measles** [1]. - These cells result from the fusion of measles virus-infected lymphocytes and are a **histological hallmark** of the disease [1]. *Rubella infection* - Rubella, or German measles, typically presents with a milder rash and **arthralgia** in adults. - While it is a viral infection, it does **not characteristically form Warthin-Finkeldey cells** in lymphoid tissue. *Rabies infection* - Rabies is a viral encephalitis primarily affecting the nervous system. - The characteristic histological finding in rabies is the presence of **Negri bodies** (eosinophilic inclusions) in the cytoplasm of neurons, not Warthin-Finkeldey cells in lymphoid tissue. *Typhoid infection* - Typhoid fever is a **bacterial infection** caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. - Histological features include **macrophage hyperplasia** and **typhoid nodules** in lymphoid tissues (like Peyer's patches), but not Warthin-Finkeldey cells. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 362-363.

Q: Which disease is associated with the CD59 marker?

PNH. ***PNH*** - The **CD59 marker** is associated with **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)**, a condition characterized by the loss of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchored proteins [1]. - It protects red blood cells from **complement-mediated lysis**, and its absence leads to hemolysis and thrombosis in patients with PNH [1,4]. *PTEN* - The **PTEN gene** is a tumor suppressor associated with various cancers and is not related to CD59. - It is primarily involved in the **regulation of the Akt signaling pathway**, not in complement regulation. *BRR* - **BRR (Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome)** is linked to folliculin and does not involve CD59. - This genetic condition is characterized by **skin tumors** and renal tumors, unrelated to the complement system. *Cowden syndrome* - **Cowden syndrome** is associated with mutations in the PTEN gene, relating to **hamartomas** and breast cancer risk, not CD59. - It affects multiple systems but does not involve **complement regulatory proteins** like CD59. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 650-651. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 601-602.

Q: A child has a rash. His family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

Atopic dermatitis. ***Atopic dermatitis*** - The presence of a rash in a child with a family history of **asthma** strongly suggests atopic dermatitis, as it is part of the **atopic triad** (eczema, asthma, allergic rhinitis). - Atopic dermatitis often presents with **erythematous, pruritic patches** and plaques, commonly affecting flexural areas like the antecubital and popliteal fossae, as well as the face and neck in younger children. *Seborrheic dermatitis* - This condition typically presents with **greasy, yellowish scales** on an erythematous base, often affecting areas rich in sebaceous glands such as the scalp, face (nasolabial folds), and chest. - While it can occur in infants, it does not have the strong association with a family history of asthma seen in atopic dermatitis. *Allergic contact dermatitis* - This rash results from an **exposure to an allergen**, leading to a localized, erythematous, and pruritic eruption, often with vesicles or bullae, at the site of contact. - The history does not provide information about a specific allergen exposure, and while it could produce a similar-looking rash, the family history of asthma points more strongly to atopic diathesis. *Erysipelas* - Erysipelas is a superficial skin infection, usually caused by *Streptococcus pyogenes*, presenting as a **well-demarcated, intensely erythematous, warm, and painful rash** with a raised border. - This is an **acute bacterial infection** and would typically be accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever and chills, which are not mentioned in the child's presentation.

Q: In hypovolemic shock there is -

Decreased cardiac output. ***Decreased cardiac output*** - **Hypovolemic shock** is fundamentally defined by **decreased circulating blood volume**, which leads to **decreased venous return** to the heart. - According to the **Frank-Starling mechanism**, decreased venous return leads to **decreased preload**, which results in **decreased stroke volume** and consequently **decreased cardiac output**. - This is the **primary hemodynamic characteristic** of hypovolemic shock and is present in ALL cases. - Decreased cardiac output triggers all the compensatory mechanisms seen in hypovolemic shock, including sympathetic activation and RAAS activation. *Afferent arteriolar constriction* - While afferent arteriolar constriction does occur in hypovolemic shock due to **sympathetic activation**, it is a **compensatory response** rather than the primary feature. - The predominant effect at the kidney level is actually a combination of both afferent and efferent arteriolar changes. - This occurs secondary to the decreased cardiac output. *Efferent arteriolar constriction* - **Efferent arteriolar constriction** is mediated primarily by **angiotensin II** and is actually MORE prominent than afferent constriction. - This helps **maintain glomerular filtration rate (GFR)** despite reduced renal blood flow by increasing glomerular hydrostatic pressure. - However, this is also a compensatory response, not the primary feature of hypovolemic shock. *Increased blood flow to kidney* - This is incorrect as hypovolemic shock causes **decreased renal blood flow**. - Blood is redistributed away from the kidneys to vital organs like the heart and brain through compensatory vasoconstriction.

Q: What happens to gas exchange when the Va/Q ratio approaches infinity?

No exchange of O2 and CO2 occurs.. ***No exchange of O2 and CO2 occurs.*** - When the **Va/Q ratio approaches infinity**, it signifies a scenario of **ventilation without perfusion** (Q approaches zero). - This represents **alveolar dead space** - despite adequate ventilation, there is **no blood flow** to participate in gas exchange. - Therefore, **no O2 enters the blood** and **no CO2 leaves the blood**, making this the most accurate description of what happens to gas exchange. *Partial pressure of O2 becomes negligible.* - This statement is incorrect because with **no blood flow** (Q = 0), the alveolar air retains high O2 partial pressure. - O2 is being delivered via ventilation but not removed by blood, so **alveolar PO2** would approach that of **inspired air (~150 mmHg)**, not become negligible. *Partial pressure of CO2 becomes negligible.* - While this statement is technically true (alveolar PCO2 would approach zero/inspired air levels), it doesn't directly answer what happens to **gas exchange**. - With no blood flowing through the alveolus, no **CO2 from venous blood** can reach the alveolus to be excreted. - However, the question asks about **gas exchange** itself, not just partial pressures, making the first option more comprehensive. *Partial pressures of both CO2 and O2 remain normal.* - This statement is incorrect as the **Va/Q mismatch** significantly alters the partial pressures of both gases. - In infinite Va/Q scenario (dead space ventilation), **alveolar PO2 would be high** (approaching inspired air ~150 mmHg) and **alveolar PCO2 would be low** (approaching zero).

Question 1

What is the primary tensor of the vocal cords?

Accepted Answer

Cricothyroid

Answer

Lateral Cricoarytenoid

Answer

Thyroarytenoids

Answer

Posterior cricoarytenoids

Question 2

In Cystinuria, which of the following amino acids is not affected by the reabsorption defect?

Accepted Answer

Citrulline

Answer

Arginine

Answer

Ornithine

Answer

Lysine

Question 3

Patient presenting with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, Which investigation is to be performed next that will help you diagnose the condition?

Accepted Answer

ANCA

Answer

RA factor

Answer

Hbsag

Answer

MIF

Question 4

Which is not included in AIDS related complex?

Accepted Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Answer

Recurrent genital candidiasis

Answer

Generalised lymphadenopathy

Answer

Chronic diarrhea

Question 5

Which organism is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?

Accepted Answer

E.coli

Answer

Enterococcus

Answer

Streptococcus viridans

Answer

Peptostreptococcus

Question 6

Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in

Accepted Answer

Measles infection

Answer

Rubella infection

Answer

Rabies infection

Answer

Typhoid infection

Question 7

Which disease is associated with the CD59 marker?

Accepted Answer

PNH

Answer

Cowden syndrome

Answer

Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome

Answer

PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome

Question 8

A child has a rash. His family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Atopic dermatitis

Answer

Seborrheic dermatitis

Answer

Allergic contact dermatitis

Answer

Erysipelas

Question 9

In hypovolemic shock there is -

Accepted Answer

Decreased cardiac output

Answer

Efferent arteriolar constriction

Answer

Increased blood flow to kidney

Answer

Afferent arteriolar constriction

Question 10

What happens to gas exchange when the Va/Q ratio approaches infinity?

Accepted Answer

No exchange of O2 and CO2 occurs.

Answer

Partial pressure of O2 becomes negligible.

Answer

Partial pressure of CO2 becomes negligible.

Answer

Partial pressures of both CO2 and O2 remain normal.

NEET-PG 2018

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Physiology