NEET-PG 2018 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: What is the ratio of incidence of a disease among the exposed to the incidence among non-exposed?

Relative risk. ***Relative risk*** - **Relative risk** (RR) directly compares the **incidence of disease** in an exposed group to the incidence in an unexposed group. - It is used in **cohort studies** and **randomized controlled trials** to quantify the strength of an association between an exposure and an outcome. *Odds ratio* - The **odds ratio** (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome in **case-control studies**. - It compares the odds of exposure among cases to the odds of exposure among controls, not directly comparing incidence rates. *Absolute risk* - **Absolute risk** is the **incidence of a disease** in a population, without comparison to another group. - It represents the probability of developing a disease over a specified period. *Attributable risk* - **Attributable risk** (AR) quantifies the amount of disease that can be **attributed to a specific exposure**. - It is the difference in incidence rates between exposed and unexposed groups, not a ratio. [Practice more NEET-PG 2018 questions on OnCourse]

Q: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

First molar. ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**. [Practice more NEET-PG 2018 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following are risk factors for cutaneous lymphoma?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **All listed factors**, including age, gender, and a weakened immune system, are recognized risk factors for the development of cutaneous lymphoma. - The risk of cutaneous lymphoma generally **increases with age**, shows a slightly higher incidence in **males**, and is significantly elevated in individuals with **compromised immune systems**. *Age* - While age is a risk factor, it is only one component among several that contribute to the overall risk of developing cutaneous lymphoma. - The incidence of most lymphomas, including cutaneous forms, typically **increases with advancing age**, but other factors also play a critical role. *Gender* - Like age, gender is a recognized risk factor, with a slightly **higher incidence in males** compared to females. - However, gender alone does not fully explain the risk, as environmental and other host-related factors also contribute. *Weakened immune system* - A weakened immune system is a significant risk factor, as it impairs the body's ability to control abnormal cell growth, including cancerous lymphocytes. - However, it is not the sole risk factor; individuals with healthy immune systems can also develop cutaneous lymphoma due to other contributing factors. [Practice more NEET-PG 2018 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Cyroglobulinemia is associated with:

Hepatitis C. ***Hepatitis C*** - **Cryoglobulinemia** is most strongly associated with chronic **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection [1]. - HCV infection can lead to the formation of **cryoglobulins**, which are immunoglobulins that precipitate in the cold and can cause systemic vasculitis [1]. *Hepatitis A* - **Hepatitis A** is an acute, self-limiting viral infection that is not typically associated with chronic complications like cryoglobulinemia. - It primarily causes **acute hepatitis** and does not lead to chronic carrier states or immune complex diseases. *Hepatitis B* - While **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** can be associated with immune complex diseases, such as **polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** and **glomerulonephritis**, it is less commonly linked to cryoglobulinemia than HCV. - HBV-associated immune complex diseases generally involve different pathogenesis and clinical presentations than HCV-associated cryoglobulinemia. *Hepatitis D* - **Hepatitis D virus (HDV)** infection occurs only in individuals already infected with HBV. - While HDV can worsen the progression of HBV-related liver disease, it is not independently associated with cryoglobulinemia. [Practice more NEET-PG 2018 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding phenylketonuria (PKU) is false?

Accepted Answer

Neurological symptoms are due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

Answer

Blood phenyl alanine level >20 mg/dl causes severe disease

Answer

Method of choice for screening is blood phenylalanine by Guthrie's test.

Answer

PKU is caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

Question 2

What is the ratio of incidence of a disease among the exposed to the incidence among non-exposed?

Accepted Answer

Relative risk

Answer

Odds ratio

Answer

Absolute risk

Answer

Attributable risk

Question 3

What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

Accepted Answer

First molar

Answer

First premolar

Answer

Second premolar

Answer

Second molar

Question 4

Which of the following are risk factors for cutaneous lymphoma?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Weakened immune system

Answer

Age

Answer

Gender

Question 5

Cyroglobulinemia is associated with:

Accepted Answer

Hepatitis C

Answer

Hepatitis A

Answer

Hepatitis B

Answer

Hepatitis D

Question 6

Calculate the GCS of a 25-year-old head injury patient who is confused, opens their eyes in response to pain, and localizes pain. What is the GCS score?

Accepted Answer

11

Answer

6

Answer

12

Answer

7

Question 7

What is the first-line maneuver for management of shoulder dystocia?

Accepted Answer

Sharp flexion of hip joints towards abdomen

Answer

90 degree rotation of posterior shoulder

Answer

Emergency c-section

Answer

Supra pubic pressure

Question 8

What is Prosopagnosia?

Accepted Answer

Difficulty in identifying known faces

Answer

Impairment of consciousness

Answer

Being unaware of one's problems

Answer

Failure to identify objects

Question 9

Which of the following is category 3 in the Maastricht classification of donation after cardiac death?

Accepted Answer

Awaiting cardiac arrest

Answer

Patient found deceased upon arrival

Answer

Attempts at resuscitation after cardiac arrest

Answer

Cardiac arrest following brain death declaration

Question 10

Which of the following factors is NOT a component of the Van Nuys prognostic index?

Accepted Answer

Estrogen receptor (ER) status

Answer

Age

Answer

Tumor size

Answer

Margin width

NEET-PG 2018

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dental

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Psychiatry

Surgery