NEET-PG 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness?

Vit. A. ***Vitamin A*** - **Vitamin A deficiency is THE classic cause of night blindness (nyctalopia)**, one of the earliest signs of deficiency - Vitamin A is essential for synthesis of **rhodopsin**, the photopigment in retinal rod cells responsible for vision in dim light - Deficiency leads to impaired dark adaptation and progressive loss of night vision - Other manifestations include **xerophthalmia, Bitot's spots, and keratomalacia** - This is a high-yield fact for NEET-PG examinations *Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)* - Riboflavin deficiency causes **oral-ocular-genital syndrome** - Clinical features include **angular stomatitis, cheilosis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis** - Eye manifestations include **corneal vascularization and photophobia**, NOT night blindness - Does NOT cause night blindness as a primary symptom *Thiamine (Vitamin B1)* - Thiamine deficiency causes **Beriberi** (wet and dry forms) and **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome** - Characterized by peripheral neuropathy, cardiac dysfunction, and CNS manifestations - Does NOT cause night blindness *Biotin (Vitamin B7)* - Biotin deficiency is rare and causes **dermatitis, alopecia, conjunctivitis** - Also causes neurological symptoms in severe deficiency - Does NOT cause night blindness

Q: Where will be the placement location for Auditory Brainstem Implant?

Recess of 4th ventricle. ***Recess of 4th ventricle*** - An **Auditory Brainstem Implant (ABI)** is placed on the **cochlear nucleus** in the brainstem, which is anatomically located near the **lateral recess of the fourth ventricle**. - The implant stimulates these nuclei directly, bypassing the damaged auditory nerve in patients who cannot benefit from cochlear implants. *Scala tympani* - The **scala tympani** is the location for electrode placement in a **cochlear implant**, not an auditory brainstem implant. - Cochlear implants stimulate the intact auditory nerve within the cochlea. *IAC* - The **internal auditory canal (IAC)** houses the auditory and facial nerves, but it is not the target site for an ABI. - The ABI is designed for patients whose auditory nerve (which passes through the IAC) is non-functional. *Back of ear* - The "back of the ear" is the general area where the **external processor of a cochlear implant** or a **bone-anchored hearing aid** is typically worn, not the surgical placement site for an ABI. - The ABI's internal component is surgically placed within the cranium.

Q: Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis is primarily caused by which type of Enterovirus?

Enterovirus type 70. ***Enterovirus type 70*** - **Enterovirus type 70** is the most common cause of **Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis (AHC)**, particularly in epidemic outbreaks. - AHC presents with rapid onset of **ocular pain**, **redness**, **swelling**, and **subconjunctival hemorrhages**. *Enterovirus type 68* - **Enterovirus D68 (EV-D68)** is primarily known for causing **respiratory illnesses**, ranging from mild to severe, and is associated with acute flaccid myelitis. - While it can cause respiratory symptoms, it is not a primary cause of **Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis**. *Enterovirus type 69* - **Enterovirus type 69** is a rare serotype and is not typically associated with specific human diseases or large-scale outbreaks. - Unlike EV70, it is not recognized as a significant cause of **conjunctivitis**. *Enterovirus type 71* - **Enterovirus A71 (EV-A71)** is a common cause of **hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD)**, especially in children, and can also lead to severe neurological complications. - While it causes various infections, it is not the primary cause of **hemorrhagic conjunctivitis**.

Q: Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Age 25-30 years. ***Age 25-30 years*** - An age of **25-30 years** is generally considered the optimal reproductive age range, and pregnancies within this bracket are typically classified as low-risk based on age alone. - This age range carries the lowest statistical risk for both maternal and fetal complications, assuming no other co-morbidities. *Previous history of manual removal of placenta* - A previous history of manual removal of the placenta indicates a risk factor for **recurrent placental retention** or **morbidly adherent placenta** in future pregnancies, making it a high-risk factor. - This history suggests an increased likelihood of complications such as **postpartum hemorrhage** and can influence the management of subsequent deliveries. *Anemia* - **Anemia** in pregnancy, especially severe iron deficiency anemia, is considered a high-risk factor due to increased maternal and fetal morbidity. - It can lead to complications such as **preterm delivery**, **low birth weight**, and difficulties tolerating blood loss during delivery. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetes mellitus**, whether pre-existing or gestational, makes a pregnancy high-risk due to potential adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. - Risks include **preeclampsia**, **macrosomia**, **neonatal hypoglycemia**, and **congenital anomalies**.

Q: Best time to perform the quadruple test is:

15-20 weeks. ***15-20 weeks*** - The quadruple test measures levels of four substances (**alpha-fetoprotein**, **human chorionic gonadotropin**, **unconjugated estriol**, and **inhibin A**) in the mother's blood. - This window is optimal for detecting neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome** and **Trisomy 18**, allowing for timely counseling and further diagnostic testing if needed. *8-12 weeks* - This period is generally too early for the quadruple test to be accurate, as the levels of the markers would not be sufficiently distinct for reliable screening. - The **combined first-trimester screening** (nuchal translucency and blood tests for PAPP-A and hCG) is typically performed during this time. *11-15 weeks* - While some components might be detectable at the later end of this range, 15-20 weeks offers a more accurate window for all four markers of the quadruple test. - **Integrated screening**, which combines first and second-trimester markers, would involve blood draws around 10-14 weeks and then 15-20 weeks. *18-22 weeks* - This period is generally considered too late for optimal results of the quadruple test, as the fetal markers might be less indicative or diagnostic interventions options might be limited. - A **detailed ultrasound** for anatomical survey is usually performed around this time.

Q: What are the effects of Progesterone-only pills?

All of the options may occur. ***All of the options may occur*** - Progesterone-only pills (POPs) work through **multiple complementary mechanisms** that collectively provide effective contraception. - All three effects occur simultaneously and contribute to the overall contraceptive efficacy of POPs. - Understanding these mechanisms helps explain why POPs are effective despite lower hormone doses compared to combined oral contraceptives. **Mechanism 1: May suppress ovulation** - POPs can **partially suppress ovulation**, preventing the release of an egg. - Traditional POPs suppress ovulation in approximately 40-60% of cycles, while newer desogestrel-containing POPs achieve higher rates (97-99%). - This effect depends on the dose and type of progestin used in the formulation. **Mechanism 2: Thins the lining of the uterus** - Progesterone causes **endometrial atrophy**, making the uterine lining thin and unsuitable for embryo implantation. - This hostile uterine environment acts as a backup contraceptive mechanism if ovulation and fertilization occur. - Endometrial changes occur consistently with POP use. **Mechanism 3: Thickens cervical mucus** - This is the **primary and most consistent mechanism** of POPs. - Progesterone significantly **increases cervical mucus viscosity** and reduces its quantity within hours of administration. - The thickened mucus creates a physical barrier that prevents sperm penetration, motility, and viability.

Q: In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin. ***Lymphocyte predominance*** - The **Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) lymphocyte predominance** variant characteristically displays a predominance of lymphocytes in the cellular makeup [1]. - This subtype is often associated with a better prognosis and fewer symptoms than other types of HL [1]. *Lymphocyte depleted* - This subtype features a significant decrease in lymphocytes, leading to a **higher proportion of Reed-Sternberg cells** [3]. - It typically presents with a more aggressive clinical course, which contrasts with lymphocyte predominance [3]. *Mixed cellularity hodgkin* - Mixed cellularity shows a variety of cell types, including a significant number of **Reed-Sternberg cells**, but does not demonstrate **lymphocyte predominance** [2]. - This subtype is generally found in older patients and associated with advanced disease, unlike lymphocyte predominance [2]. *Nodular sclerosis* - Nodular sclerosis subtype is characterized by **collagen bands** and a particular architecture that is distinct from lymphocyte predominance [2]. - It primarily affects younger patients and can often involve mediastinal lymph nodes; however, it does not have the features of lymphocyte predominance [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 616-618. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 559-560.

Q: What is mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?

Inhibition of leukocyte migration and microtubule function. ***Inhibition of leukocyte migration and microtubule function*** - Colchicine works by disrupting **microtubule polymerization**, which interferes with the **motility and activity of neutrophils and other inflammatory cells** [1]. - Its anti-inflammatory effect in acute gout is primarily due to the inhibition of **leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of urate crystals**, thereby reducing the inflammatory response [1]. - The mechanism involves binding to **tubulin**, preventing microtubule assembly, which affects multiple cellular processes including chemotaxis and cell division [1]. *Inhibition of purine metabolism* - This mechanism is associated with drugs like **allopurinol**, which inhibit **xanthine oxidase** to reduce uric acid production [2]. - Colchicine does not directly inhibit **purine metabolism** or uric acid synthesis; its effect is on the inflammatory response, not uric acid formation [1]. *Inhibition of uric acid conversion* - This mechanism refers to **uricosuric agents** like probenecid that increase renal excretion of uric acid. - Colchicine's action is primarily anti-inflammatory, not related to uric acid metabolism or excretion [1]. *Migration of leukocytes* - While this is partially correct, as colchicine does inhibit **leukocyte migration**, this option is incomplete. - The complete mechanism must include its action as a **microtubule inhibitor**, which is the underlying basis for all its cellular effects including inhibition of migration, phagocytosis, and inflammatory mediator release [1].

Q: What is the physiological response of the kidney during shock?

Renal blood flow decreases. ***Renal blood flow decreases*** - During shock, the **primary and most fundamental** physiological change affecting the kidney is a marked **reduction in renal blood flow (RBF)**. - Shock triggers intense **sympathetic activation** and **renin-angiotensin system (RAS) activation**, causing preferential **vasoconstriction** of renal vessels to redirect blood to vital organs (brain, heart). - RBF can drop to as low as **20-30% of normal** in severe shock, making this the hallmark renal response. - This reduction in RBF is the **upstream event** that triggers all other renal changes during shock. *Perfusion of kidney decreases* - While technically correct, "decreased perfusion" is **essentially synonymous** with decreased blood flow in this context. - The term "renal blood flow" is the **standard physiological terminology** used in medical literature to describe this phenomenon, making it the more precise answer. *Afferent arteriole resistance increases* - This is a **mechanism** by which RBF decreases, not the overall response itself. - Increased afferent arteriolar resistance is **secondary** to sympathetic activation and angiotensin II effects during shock. - It describes the "how" rather than the "what" of the kidney's response. *GFR decreases* - GFR reduction is a **consequence** of decreased RBF and increased afferent arteriolar resistance. - While clinically important (oliguria/acute kidney injury), it's a **downstream effect** rather than the primary physiological response. - The relationship: ↓RBF → ↓Glomerular hydrostatic pressure → ↓GFR

Q: Which of the following is the preferred graft material for femoropopliteal bypass?

Reversed saphenous. ***Reversed saphenous*** - The **autologous reversed saphenous vein** is considered the **gold standard** for femoropopliteal bypass due to its superior patency rates and resistance to infection. - The vein's valves are bypassed by reversing its orientation, ensuring unidirectional blood flow. *Dacron* - **Dacron (polyethylene terephthalate)** grafts are synthetic and commonly used for large-diameter arterial bypasses, such as in the aorta, but have **inferior patency in infrainguinal bypasses** compared to autologous vein. - **Higher rates of thrombosis and infection** are observed with Dacron in smaller leg vessels due to compliance mismatch and increased anastomotic intimal hyperplasia. *PTFE* - **Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)** grafts are synthetic and are an option when autologous vein is unavailable, particularly for above-knee femoropopliteal bypasses. - However, PTFE generally has **lower long-term patency rates** and a higher risk of complications like **graft thrombosis and infection** compared to autologous vein grafts. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **reversed saphenous vein** is indeed a preferred and highly effective graft material for femoropopliteal bypass. - The clinical evidence strongly supports its use over synthetic alternatives when available.

Question 1

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness?

Accepted Answer

Vit. A

Answer

Biotin

Answer

Thiamine

Answer

Riboflavin

Question 2

Where will be the placement location for Auditory Brainstem Implant?

Accepted Answer

Recess of 4th ventricle

Answer

Scala tympani

Answer

IAC

Answer

Back of ear

Question 3

Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis is primarily caused by which type of Enterovirus?

Accepted Answer

Enterovirus type 70

Answer

Enterovirus type 68

Answer

Enterovirus type 69

Answer

Enterovirus type 71

Question 4

Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Age 25-30 years

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Previous history of manual removal of placenta

Answer

Anemia

Question 5

Best time to perform the quadruple test is:

Accepted Answer

15-20 weeks

Answer

8-12 weeks

Answer

11-15 weeks

Answer

18-22 weeks

Question 6

What are the effects of Progesterone-only pills?

Accepted Answer

All of the options may occur

Answer

May suppress ovulation

Answer

Thins the lining of the uterus

Answer

Thickens cervical mucus

Question 7

In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Accepted Answer

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin

Answer

Lymphocyte depleted

Answer

Nodular sclerosis

Answer

Lymphocyte predominance

Question 8

What is mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?

Accepted Answer

Inhibition of leukocyte migration and microtubule function

Answer

Inhibition of purine metabolism

Answer

Inhibition of uric acid conversion

Answer

Migration of leukocytes

Question 9

What is the physiological response of the kidney during shock?

Accepted Answer

Renal blood flow decreases

Answer

GFR decreases

Answer

Perfusion of kidney decreases

Answer

Afferent arteriole resistance increases

Question 10

Which of the following is the preferred graft material for femoropopliteal bypass?

Accepted Answer

Reversed saphenous

Answer

PTFE

Answer

Dacron

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2018

Biochemistry

ENT

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology

Surgery