NEET-PG 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Ureteric bud develops from:

Mesonephros. ***Mesonephros*** - The **ureteric bud** arises as an outgrowth of the **mesonephric duct** (Wolffian duct), which is the duct of the mesonephros. - The ureteric bud emerges from the **caudal portion of the mesonephric duct** near its entry into the cloaca around the 5th week of development. - It plays a crucial role in forming the **collecting system of the kidney**, including the ureter, renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, and collecting ducts. - **Note:** While technically the ureteric bud arises from the mesonephric duct (not the mesonephric tubules), "mesonephros" is accepted as the answer referring to the mesonephric duct system. *Metanephros* - The **metanephric mesoderm** (metanephric blastema) is induced by the ureteric bud to form the **definitive kidney**. - The metanephros forms the **nephrons** (from Bowman's capsule to distal convoluted tubule). - It does not give rise to the ureteric bud; rather, it interacts with it through **reciprocal induction**. *Pronephros* - The **pronephros** is the first, transient, and **non-functional** kidney structure in human embryonic development. - It appears in the **cervical region** around week 4 and completely **regresses** by week 5. - It does not contribute to the formation of the ureteric bud or the adult kidney. *Genital sinus* - The **urogenital sinus** is derived from the ventral part of the cloaca after division by the urorectal septum. - It gives rise to the **bladder**, parts of the urethra, and contributes to external genitalia. - It is not involved in the development of the ureteric bud or the kidney's collecting system.

Q: Trilene is degraded by:

Cytochrome P450 oxidation. ***Cytochrome P450 oxidation*** - **Trichloroethylene (Trilene)** was historically used as an inhalational anesthetic and industrial solvent - In humans, it undergoes **hepatic metabolism primarily through cytochrome P450 enzymes**, particularly **CYP2E1** - The oxidation pathway produces metabolites including **chloral hydrate, trichloroethanol, and trichloroacetic acid** - This is a classic example of **Phase I detoxification** involving oxidative biotransformation - The metabolites are then conjugated (Phase II) or excreted renally *Glutathione conjugation* - While some chlorinated compounds undergo glutathione conjugation as a Phase II reaction - For trichloroethylene, **oxidation by CYP450 is the primary metabolic pathway**, not direct glutathione conjugation - GSH conjugation may occur with some metabolites but is not the main degradation route *Direct renal excretion* - Trilene is **lipophilic** and requires hepatic metabolism before elimination - Direct renal excretion without biotransformation is **minimal** - Metabolites (after oxidation) are excreted via kidneys *Acetylation* - **Acetylation** is a Phase II conjugation reaction typically for compounds with **amino or sulfonamide groups** - Trichloroethylene lacks the appropriate functional groups for acetylation - This pathway is **not involved** in Trilene metabolism

Q: Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder?

Color blindness. ***Color blindness*** - **Color blindness**, particularly red-green color blindness, is a classic example of an **X-linked recessive disorder**. - It results from mutations in genes encoding **photopigments** located on the X chromosome, affecting more males than females. - Represents one of the most commonly cited examples of X-linked inheritance in medical education. *Thalassemia* - **Thalassemia** is an **autosomal recessive disorder** affecting the synthesis of hemoglobin chains (α or β chains). - Not an X-linked condition; mutations are in genes on chromosome 16 (α-thalassemia) or chromosome 11 (β-thalassemia). - Commonly seen in populations from the Mediterranean, Middle East, and Asia. *Azoospermia* - **Azoospermia** (absence of sperm in ejaculate) is a clinical finding, not a specific genetic disorder. - Can result from various genetic causes including **Y-chromosome microdeletions** and **autosomal mutations** (e.g., CFTR gene in congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens). - Not classified as an X-linked disorder. *Sickle cell anemia* - **Sickle cell anemia** is an **autosomal recessive disorder** caused by a mutation in the β-globin gene on chromosome 11. - Results from substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 of the β-globin chain (HbS). - Not an X-linked condition; both males and females are equally affected when inheriting two copies of the mutant allele.

Q: Patient presenting with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, Which investigation is to be performed next that will help you diagnose the condition?

ANCA. ### ANCA - The combination of **cutaneous vasculitis**, **glomerulonephritis**, and **peripheral neuropathy** points towards a small-vessel vasculitis, for which **ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)** testing is crucial [1]. - ANCA is highly specific for conditions like **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)** and **Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA)** [1]. ### RA factor - **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is primarily associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**, which typically presents with symmetrical polyarthritis, not the constellation of symptoms described. - While RF can be positive in some vasculitides, it is not the most specific initial test for the given clinical presentation. ### Hbsag - **Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg)** typically screens for **Hepatitis B infection**, which can cause **polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)**, a medium-vessel vasculitis. - However, the patient's symptoms (cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis) are more characteristic of **small-vessel vasculitis**, making ANCA a more direct investigation [1]. ### MIF - **MIF (Macrophage Migration Inhibitory Factor)** is a cytokine involved in inflammation, but it is not a routine diagnostic marker for vasculitis. - It is not used as a primary investigation to diagnose specific autoimmune or inflammatory conditions like vasculitis.

Q: Which of the following methods is known as a fimbriectomy procedure?

Kroener procedure. ***Kroener procedure*** - The **Kroener procedure** is a method of **tubal ligation** particularly known as a **fimbriectomy**, where the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube is removed. - This sterilization technique primarily involves excising the **fimbriae**, preventing **ovum capture** and subsequent fertilization. *Uchida procedure* - The **Uchida procedure** involves **injecting a sclerosing solution** under the serosa of the fallopian tube, then excising a small segment and ligating the ends. - This method aims to **bury the fimbriated end** within the broad ligament, but it is not a fimbriectomy. *Irving procedure* - The **Irving procedure** involves **tying and transecting the fallopian tube**, then burying the severed medial end into the posterior wall of the uterus. - This technique is designed to prevent **fistula formation** and recanalization but does not involve fimbriectomy. *Madlener procedure* - The **Madlener procedure** involves **crushing a section** of the fallopian tube, usually a knuckle, and then ligating it. - This method is simpler but has a **higher failure rate** compared to other sterilization techniques and does not involve removal of the fimbriae.

Q: Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Age 25-30 years. ***Age 25-30 years*** - An age of **25-30 years** is generally considered the optimal reproductive age range, and pregnancies within this bracket are typically classified as low-risk based on age alone. - This age range carries the lowest statistical risk for both maternal and fetal complications, assuming no other co-morbidities. *Previous history of manual removal of placenta* - A previous history of manual removal of the placenta indicates a risk factor for **recurrent placental retention** or **morbidly adherent placenta** in future pregnancies, making it a high-risk factor. - This history suggests an increased likelihood of complications such as **postpartum hemorrhage** and can influence the management of subsequent deliveries. *Anemia* - **Anemia** in pregnancy, especially severe iron deficiency anemia, is considered a high-risk factor due to increased maternal and fetal morbidity. - It can lead to complications such as **preterm delivery**, **low birth weight**, and difficulties tolerating blood loss during delivery. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetes mellitus**, whether pre-existing or gestational, makes a pregnancy high-risk due to potential adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. - Risks include **preeclampsia**, **macrosomia**, **neonatal hypoglycemia**, and **congenital anomalies**.

Q: What type of uterine anomaly is shown in this X-ray HSG image?

Unicornuate uterus. ***Unicornuate uterus*** - The image shows a single, elongated uterine horn with a single fallopian tube arising from it, consistent with a **unicornuate uterus**. - This congenital anomaly results from the **failure of one Müllerian duct to develop**, leading to an abnormally shaped uterus. *Septate uterus* - A **septate uterus** would show a normal uterine fundus with an internal septum dividing the uterine cavity. - This image clearly depicts only **one rudimentary horn** and no visible septum. *Uterus didelphys* - **Uterus didelphys** involves two completely separate uteri, each with its own cervix and vagina. - The image does not show evidence of a **second, separate uterine structure**. *Bicornuate uterus* - A **bicornuate uterus** is characterized by two distinct uterine horns, which fuse at the cervix or lower uterine segment, creating a heart-shaped appearance of the fundus. - The image shows a **single, long horn** rather than two distinct horns.

Q: Which gene is primarily associated with Cowden syndrome?

PTEN. ***PTEN*** - Cowden syndrome is an **autosomal dominant** inherited disorder caused by germline mutations in the **PTEN (phosphatase and tensin homolog) tumor suppressor gene**. - The PTEN gene plays a crucial role in cell growth, proliferation, and apoptosis, and its dysfunction leads to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of multiple **hamartomas** and increased cancer risk. *TP53* - Mutations in the **TP53 gene** are primarily associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome, a different inherited cancer predisposition syndrome characterized by a high risk of various cancers including sarcomas, breast cancer, and adrenocortical carcinoma. - While both inherited cancer syndromes involve tumor suppressor gene mutations, the specific gene affected and the clinical presentation differ significantly. *RB1* - The **RB1 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **retinoblastoma**, a rare childhood eye cancer, and an increased risk of other cancers like osteosarcoma. - It plays a critical role in cell cycle regulation, and its mutation leads to uncontrolled cell division in the retina and other tissues. *KRAS* - The **KRAS gene** is an oncogene, not a tumor suppressor gene, and its mutations are frequently found in various sporadic cancers, particularly **colorectal cancer**, pancreatic cancer, and lung cancer. - KRAS mutations lead to constitutive activation of signaling pathways that promote cell growth and survival, but they are not the primary genetic cause of inherited Cowden syndrome.

Q: In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin. ***Lymphocyte predominance*** - The **Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) lymphocyte predominance** variant characteristically displays a predominance of lymphocytes in the cellular makeup [1]. - This subtype is often associated with a better prognosis and fewer symptoms than other types of HL [1]. *Lymphocyte depleted* - This subtype features a significant decrease in lymphocytes, leading to a **higher proportion of Reed-Sternberg cells** [3]. - It typically presents with a more aggressive clinical course, which contrasts with lymphocyte predominance [3]. *Mixed cellularity hodgkin* - Mixed cellularity shows a variety of cell types, including a significant number of **Reed-Sternberg cells**, but does not demonstrate **lymphocyte predominance** [2]. - This subtype is generally found in older patients and associated with advanced disease, unlike lymphocyte predominance [2]. *Nodular sclerosis* - Nodular sclerosis subtype is characterized by **collagen bands** and a particular architecture that is distinct from lymphocyte predominance [2]. - It primarily affects younger patients and can often involve mediastinal lymph nodes; however, it does not have the features of lymphocyte predominance [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 616-618. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 559-560.

Q: Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in

Measles infection. ***Measles infection*** - **Warthin-Finkeldey cells** are characteristic large, multinucleated giant cells with acidophilic intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions found in lymphoid tissues during the prodromal phase of **measles** [1]. - These cells result from the fusion of measles virus-infected lymphocytes and are a **histological hallmark** of the disease [1]. *Rubella infection* - Rubella, or German measles, typically presents with a milder rash and **arthralgia** in adults. - While it is a viral infection, it does **not characteristically form Warthin-Finkeldey cells** in lymphoid tissue. *Rabies infection* - Rabies is a viral encephalitis primarily affecting the nervous system. - The characteristic histological finding in rabies is the presence of **Negri bodies** (eosinophilic inclusions) in the cytoplasm of neurons, not Warthin-Finkeldey cells in lymphoid tissue. *Typhoid infection* - Typhoid fever is a **bacterial infection** caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. - Histological features include **macrophage hyperplasia** and **typhoid nodules** in lymphoid tissues (like Peyer's patches), but not Warthin-Finkeldey cells. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 362-363.

Question 1

Ureteric bud develops from:

Accepted Answer

Mesonephros

Answer

Metanephros

Answer

Pronephros

Answer

Genital sinus

Question 2

Trilene is degraded by:

Accepted Answer

Cytochrome P450 oxidation

Answer

Glutathione conjugation

Answer

Direct renal excretion

Answer

Acetylation

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder?

Accepted Answer

Color blindness

Answer

Thalassemia

Answer

Azoospermia

Answer

Sickle cell anemia

Question 4

Patient presenting with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, Which investigation is to be performed next that will help you diagnose the condition?

Accepted Answer

ANCA

Answer

RA factor

Answer

Hbsag

Answer

MIF

Question 5

Which of the following methods is known as a fimbriectomy procedure?

Accepted Answer

Kroener procedure

Answer

Uchida procedure

Answer

Irving procedure

Answer

Madlener procedure

Question 6

Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Age 25-30 years

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Previous history of manual removal of placenta

Answer

Anemia

Question 7

What type of uterine anomaly is shown in this X-ray HSG image?

Accepted Answer

Unicornuate uterus

Answer

Septate uterus

Answer

Uterus didelphys

Answer

Bicornuate uterus

Question 8

Which gene is primarily associated with Cowden syndrome?

Accepted Answer

PTEN

Answer

RB1

Answer

KRAS

Answer

TP53

Question 9

In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Accepted Answer

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin

Answer

Lymphocyte depleted

Answer

Nodular sclerosis

Answer

Lymphocyte predominance

Question 10

Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in

Accepted Answer

Measles infection

Answer

Rubella infection

Answer

Rabies infection

Answer

Typhoid infection

NEET-PG 2018

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology