Anatomy
1 questionsTesticular artery is a branch of -
NEET-PG 2018 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Testicular artery is a branch of -
- A. Common iliac artery
- B. External iliac artery
- C. Internal iliac artery
- D. Abdominal aorta (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Abdominal aorta*** - The **testicular arteries**, also known as **gonadal arteries**, originate directly from the anterior aspect of the **abdominal aorta**. - They typically arise just inferior to the **renal arteries** at the level of the second lumbar vertebra (L2) and descend to supply the testes. *Common iliac artery* - The common iliac artery is a terminal branch of the **abdominal aorta**, but it gives rise to the internal and external iliac arteries, not directly the testicular artery. [2] - It bifurcates at the level of the sacroiliac joint. [3] *External iliac artery* - The external iliac artery primarily supplies the **lower limb** and gives off the inferior epigastric and deep circumflex iliac arteries. [1] - It does not directly provide branches to the testes. *Internal iliac artery* - The internal iliac artery primarily supplies the **pelvic organs**, gluteal region, and perineum. - While it has numerous branches, none of them are the main gonadal arteries; it contributes to the blood supply of the reproductive organs through other smaller branches. [3]
Community Medicine
1 questionsWHO global target for prevention and control of non communicable diseases by 2025 is to decrease the prevalence of raised blood pressure (hypertension) by
NEET-PG 2018 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: WHO global target for prevention and control of non communicable diseases by 2025 is to decrease the prevalence of raised blood pressure (hypertension) by
- A. 75%
- B. 25% (Correct Answer)
- C. 90%
- D. 55%
Explanation: ***25%*** - The World Health Organization (WHO) set a **global target** to achieve a **25% relative reduction** in the prevalence of **raised blood pressure (hypertension)** by 2025 (compared to 2010 baseline). - This target is part of the **WHO Global Action Plan for NCDs** and the Global Monitoring Framework to combat **non-communicable diseases (NCDs)**. *75%* - A 75% reduction in hypertension prevalence is an **unrealistically ambitious** target given current global health challenges and interventions. - While significant reductions are desired, the evidence-based target set by WHO is a more achievable 25% reduction. *90%* - A 90% reduction is not one of the specifically stated **WHO global targets** for hypertension by 2025. - Such a drastic reduction would require unprecedented public health interventions and is not supported by current evidence. *55%* - 55% is not a recognized **WHO target** for the prevention and control of hypertension by 2025. - The established global target from the WHO NCD Global Monitoring Framework specifically focuses on a **25% relative reduction**.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhich of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cryoglobulinemia?
Which of the following is seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
NEET-PG 2018 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cryoglobulinemia?
- A. Ovarian cancer
- B. Hepatitis c (Correct Answer)
- C. Diabetes
- D. Leukemia
Explanation: No relevant references were found in the provided sources to support the connection between Hepatitis C and cryoglobulinemia. The available text discusses taste physiology, Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS), and administrative frontmatter (author bios and prefaces), which are not relevant to the clinical question regarding cryoglobulinemia associations. ***Hepatitis C*** - **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection is the most common cause of **mixed cryoglobulinemia**, particularly Type II and Type III. - HCV-associated cryoglobulinemia often presents with **purpura, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis**. *Ovarian cancer* - While certain cancers can be associated with paraneoplastic syndromes, **ovarian cancer** is not a common cause of cryoglobulinemia. - Cryoglobulinemia associated with malignancies is typically seen with **hematologic cancers** rather than solid tumors like ovarian cancer. *Diabetes* - **Diabetes mellitus** is a metabolic disorder primarily affecting glucose regulation and is not directly linked to the formation of cryoglobulins. - There is no established common association between diabetes and cryoglobulinemia. *Leukemia* - Although some **hematologic malignancies** like multiple myeloma or Waldenström's macroglobulinemia can be associated with cryoglobulinemia (Type I), **leukemia** is not the most common cause overall. - The most prevalent association for mixed cryoglobulinemia remains **chronic infections**, specifically Hepatitis C.
Question 232: Which of the following is seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
- A. Presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
- B. Presence of Anti-CCP antibodies
- C. Higher risk of extra-articular manifestations
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the above*** - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation that can affect various body systems, and the presence of **Rheumatoid Factor (RF)**, **Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide (Anti-CCP) antibodies**, and a **higher risk of extra-articular manifestations** are all characteristic features [1]. - While RF and anti-CCP are diagnostic markers, extra-articular manifestations highlight the systemic nature of the disease, affecting organs beyond the joints. *Presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)* - While many patients with **rheumatoid arthritis** test positive for **RF**, it is not specific to RA and can be seen in other conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, and chronic infections [1]. - Approximately 20% of RA patients are seronegative for RF. *Presence of Anti-CCP antibodies* - **Anti-CCP antibodies** are highly specific for **rheumatoid arthritis** and often appear early in the disease course, making them a valuable diagnostic and prognostic marker [1]. - Their presence is strongly associated with an erosive disease course. *Higher risk of extra-articular manifestations* - **Extra-articular manifestations** of **rheumatoid arthritis** indicate systemic involvement and can include rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis, pleuritis, pericarditis, scleritis, and Felty's syndrome [1]. - The presence of these manifestations often correlates with more severe disease and a poorer prognosis [1].
Microbiology
2 questionsMost common catheter-related bloodstream infection is due to:
A 40-year-old immunocompromised patient presents with complaints of dysphagia. UGI endoscopy shows multiple ulcers in distal esophagus. Biopsy was performed and histopathology is shown below. Diagnosis is:
NEET-PG 2018 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Most common catheter-related bloodstream infection is due to:
- A. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CoNS) (Correct Answer)
- B. Candida species
- C. Gram-negative bacilli
- D. Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)
Explanation: ***Coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CoNS)*** - **Coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CoNS)**, particularly *Staphylococcus epidermidis*, are the most common cause of **catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs)** due to their ability to form **biofilms** on catheter surfaces. - Their ubiquity on the skin, combined with their capacity for **adherence** and **biofilm production**, facilitates their entry and proliferation within the catheter lumen. *Candida species* - While *Candida species* (e.g., *Candida albicans*) are significant causes of CRBSIs, especially in **immunocompromised** patients or those on **broad-spectrum antibiotics**, they are less common overall than CoNS. - Risk factors for *Candida* CRBSIs include prolonged hospitalization, total parenteral nutrition, and **central venous catheters**. *Gram-negative bacilli* - **Gram-negative bacilli** (e.g., *Klebsiella pneumoniae*, *Escherichia coli*, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*) are important pathogens in CRBSIs, often associated with **severe sepsis** and higher mortality rates. - However, their overall incidence in catheter-induced infections is lower than that of CoNS, though they are more prevalent in certain hospital units like **ICUs**. *Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)* - **Staphylococcus aureus** causes clinically significant CRBSIs, often leading to more severe infections, including **endocarditis** and **septic emboli**, than CoNS. - While *S. aureus* infections are serious, CoNS remain the most frequently isolated organism in all CRBSI cases, partly due to the high carriage rate of *S. epidermidis* on human skin.
Question 232: A 40-year-old immunocompromised patient presents with complaints of dysphagia. UGI endoscopy shows multiple ulcers in distal esophagus. Biopsy was performed and histopathology is shown below. Diagnosis is:
- A. Candida esophagitis
- B. Herpes esophagitis
- C. CMV esophagitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Barrett's esophagus
Explanation: ***CMV esophagitis*** - The image shows a classic "owl's eye" inclusion, which is a characteristic cytopathic effect of **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infection. - CMV esophagitis typically causes large, linear ulcers in the distal esophagus of **immunocompromised patients**, matching the patient's presentation. *Candida esophagitis* - This condition presents with white plaques and fuzzy exudates on endoscopy, and biopsy reveals **yeast and pseudohyphae**, which are not seen in the image. - While it occurs in immunocompromised patients, the microscopic findings are distinct from those of CMV. *Herpes esophagitis* - Herpes esophagitis is characterized by multiple, small, punched-out ulcers and microscopic findings of **Cowdry A inclusions** and **multinucleated giant cells**. - The "owl's eye" inclusion seen in the image is not typical for herpes simplex virus infection. *Barrett's esophagus* - Barrett's esophagus is a metaplastic change in the esophageal lining where **squamous epithelium** is replaced by **columnar epithelium with goblet cells**, usually due to chronic GERD. - It does not involve viral inclusions or ulcerations in the manner described in the clinical vignette or depicted in the image.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsIn uterine prolapse, how do you assess if a pessary ring is properly in place?
NEET-PG 2018 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: In uterine prolapse, how do you assess if a pessary ring is properly in place?
- A. If Bleeding does not occur
- B. If patient feels discomfort
- C. If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure*** - A properly fitted pessary should remain in place even with increased **intra-abdominal pressure**, such as during coughing, straining, or Valsalva maneuvers, indicating stable support for the uterus. - This assesses the pessary's ability to mechanically support the **pelvic organs** and prevent prolapse recurrence during daily activities. *If Bleeding does not occur* - While bleeding after pessary insertion can indicate trauma or irritation, the absence of bleeding alone does not confirm proper fit or efficacy in preventing **prolapse**. - Bleeding can occur due to various reasons, and it is not a direct measure of the pessary's ability to maintain its position or provide support. *If patient feels discomfort* - Discomfort can indicate either an improperly fitted pessary (too large causing pressure, or too small causing rubbing) or an initial adjustment period. - However, the absence of discomfort does not guarantee the pessary will stay in place during activities that increase **abdominal pressure**, which is crucial for prolapse management. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the ability of the pessary to remain in place during increased abdominal pressure is a key indicator of its proper fit and effectiveness.
Pathology
1 questionsBone biopsy specimen is shown below. Diagnosis is:
NEET-PG 2018 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Bone biopsy specimen is shown below. Diagnosis is:
- A. Paget's disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteomalacia
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Osteosclerosis
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - The image shows a **mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone**, with prominent **cement lines** (dark wavy lines). This disorganized bone remodeling is characteristic of Paget's disease. - Paget's disease involves excessive and disorganized bone turnover, leading to structurally abnormal and weakened bone. *Osteomalacia* - Characterized by **deficient mineralization of osteoid**, leading to accumulation of unmineralized matrix. - Histologically, this would present as wide, unmineralized osteoid seams, which are not seen in the image. *Osteoporosis* - Defined by a **reduction in bone mass** and microarchitectural deterioration, leading to increased fracture risk. - Histologically, osteoporosis would show **thinner trabeculae** and **larger marrow spaces**, but the bone itself would be normally mineralized, lacking the disorganized mosaic pattern. *Osteosclerosis* - Refers to an **increase in bone density**, often due to increased bone formation or decreased bone resorption. - While Paget's disease can lead to increased bone density in affected areas, osteosclerosis as a primary diagnosis would typically involve uniformly dense, often thickened bone without the classic mosaic pattern seen here.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?
NEET-PG 2018 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in acute gout?
- A. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
- B. Uric acid nephrolithiasis
- C. Deficiency of enzyme Xanthine oxidase
- D. Inhibition of leukocyte migration and phagocytosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inhibition of leukocyte migration and phagocytosis*** - Colchicine primarily exerts its anti-inflammatory effect in acute gout by **binding to tubulin**, which inhibits microtubule polymerization. - This action disrupts essential cellular functions in inflammatory cells, particularly **neutrophils**, thereby reducing their migration to inflamed sites and their ability to phagocytose uric acid crystals. *Renal disease involving interstitial tissues* - This option describes a potential complication or manifestation of gout, such as **urate nephropathy**, rather than the mechanism of action of colchicine. - Colchicine does not directly target or treat pre-existing renal interstitial tissue disease as its primary mechanism for acute gout relief. *Uric acid nephrolithiasis* - This condition involves the formation of **kidney stones from uric acid** and is a consequence of chronic hyperuricemia. - Colchicine is not used to acutely treat or prevent the formation of uric acid kidney stones; its role is in managing the inflammatory arthritis of gout. *Deficiency of enzyme Xanthine oxidase* - **Xanthine oxidase** is an enzyme involved in the production of uric acid, and its inhibition (e.g., by allopurinol or febuxostat) is a strategy to lower uric acid levels in the blood. - Colchicine does not affect xanthine oxidase activity; it works downstream by modulating the inflammatory response to uric acid crystals.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following feature differentiates delirium from dementia?
NEET-PG 2018 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Which of the following feature differentiates delirium from dementia?
- A. Progressive memory impairment
- B. Visual or auditory hallucinations
- C. Impaired communication due to cognitive decline
- D. Acute confusional state (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute confusional state*** - Delirium is characterized by an **acute or subacute onset** of fluctuating attention and cognition, indicating a sudden and often reversible change in mental status. - This contrasts sharply with dementia, which typically involves a **gradual and progressive decline** over months to years. *Progressive memory impairment* - This is a hallmark feature of **dementia**, where memory loss gradually worsens over time as the disease progresses. - While memory can be impaired in delirium, its onset is acute and severe memory impairment typically only occurs in cases of **severe delirium**, not as a primary defining feature. *Visual or auditory hallucinations* - While hallucinations can occur in both delirium and dementia, they are more **prominent and vivid** in delirium, often fluctuating and contributing to the acute confusional state. - In dementia, hallucinations are usually less frequent and tend to be **more persistent**, but not typically as variable as in delirium. *Impaired communication due to cognitive decline* - Both conditions can cause difficulty with communication due to cognitive deficits, but in dementia, this impairment is **gradual and pervasive**, reflecting a chronic decline in language and executive function. - In delirium, communication difficulties arise from the **acute disturbance of attention** and can fluctuate significantly depending on the patient's level of arousal and confusion.