NEET-PG 2018 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: All of the following characteristic patterns seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome; except:-

Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature. ***Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature*** - Brown-Sequard syndrome results from **hemitransverse spinal cord lesion**, leading to distinct sensory and motor deficits on only one side of the body [1]. - Pain and temperature pathways (spinothalamic tracts) **decussate (cross over)** in the spinal cord upon entry, so a lesion on one side causes **contralateral** loss of these sensations [2]. *Contralateral loss of pain and temperature* - This is a **characteristic finding** in Brown-Sequard syndrome, as the spinothalamic tracts (carrying pain and temperature) cross over at the level of the spinal cord [2]. - A lesion on one side of the spinal cord therefore results in the loss of these sensations on the **opposite side of the body below the level of the lesion** [1]. *Ipsilateral weakness* - This is a **characteristic finding** in Brown-Sequard syndrome due to the involvement of the **corticospinal tracts** (responsible for motor function) [1]. - These tracts primarily descend **uncrossed** in the spinal cord, so a lesion on one side causes weakness on the **same side of the body below the level of the lesion**. *Ipsilateral loss of position and vibration* - This is a **characteristic finding** in Brown-Sequard syndrome because the **dorsal columns** (medial lemniscal pathway), responsible for fine touch, proprioception, and vibration, ascend **ipsilaterally (uncrossed)** in the spinal cord [2]. - A lesion on one side of the spinal cord therefore results in the loss of these sensations on the **same side of the body below the level of the lesion** [1].

Q: A newborn male baby presents with congestive heart failure. On examination, there are enlarged fontanelles, a loud cranial bruit, and the following radiological finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Vein of Galen malformation. ***Vein of Galen malformation*** - The imaging displays a massively dilated **vein of Galen**, indicating a **Vein of Galen malformation (VOGM)**. - VOGM creates a large **arteriovenous shunt**, leading to high-output **congestive heart failure** and often presenting with prominent **cranial bruits** and **macrocephaly** (enlarged fontanelles). *Pneumocephalus* - This condition involves the presence of **air within the intracranial cavity**, commonly due to trauma, surgery, or infection. - It would not explain the **congestive heart failure** or the vascular malformation seen on the imaging. *Crouzon syndrome* - This is a form of **craniosynostosis** characterized by abnormalities in skull and facial bone development, including **midfacial hypoplasia** and **proptosis**. - While it can involve enlarged fontanelles due to hydrocephalus, it does not typically cause **congestive heart failure** or a **cranial bruit** from a vascular malformation. *Dandy-Walker syndrome* - This congenital brain malformation involves agenesis or hypoplasia of the **cerebellar vermis** and cystic dilation of the **fourth ventricle**, often leading to hydrocephalus. - While it can cause enlarged fontanelles, it does not typically lead to **congestive heart failure** or a **cranial bruit**, nor does it present with the characteristic vascular lesion seen in the image.

Q: VMA is elevated in which of the following condition?

Pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma - Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine). - Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) is a breakdown product of these catecholamines [1], so its levels are elevated in the urine of patients with pheochromocytoma. Tuberous sclerosis - Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous non-cancerous tumors in various organs. - While it can be associated with renal angiomyolipomas or brain lesions, it does not directly cause elevated VMA levels. Addison disease - Addison disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency [2], meaning the adrenal glands produce insufficient amounts of hormones like cortisol and aldosterone. - This condition is not associated with the overproduction of catecholamines or elevated VMA. Conn Syndrome - Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is due to an overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands, often caused by an adrenal adenoma [3]. - Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid, and its overproduction does not lead to increased catecholamine metabolism or elevated VMA levels.

Q: All of the following are true about ulcerative colitis except:

Steroid dependent cases need surgery. ***Steroid dependent cases need surgery*** - While **steroid dependency** in ulcerative colitis (UC) indicates a need for alternative or escalate medications, it does not automatically necessitate surgery [1]. - Many steroid-dependent patients can be managed effectively with **immunomodulators** or **biologic therapies**, avoiding surgery. *Surgery is required in a subset of severe cases.* - **Severe ulcerative colitis** that is refractory to medical therapy, or complicated by toxic megacolon, perforation, or severe bleeding, often requires surgical intervention [1]. - This statement is true, as surgery can be curative for UC by removing the affected colon [1]. *Extra-intestinal problems of UC are managed medically* - **Extra-intestinal manifestations** of ulcerative colitis, such as arthritis, skin lesions (erythema nodosum), and eye inflammation (uveitis), are typically managed with medications specific to those conditions, often in conjunction with UC treatment [1], [2]. - This statement is true, as these manifestations rarely require surgical intervention themselves. *The highest risk of UC requiring surgery in 1st year* - The risk of surgery in ulcerative colitis is indeed highest in the **first year after diagnosis**, particularly for patients presenting with severe disease. - This initial period often determines the disease course and responsiveness to medical treatment.

Q: Which of the following hematological problems may be precipitated by parvovirus?

Aplastic crisis. ***Aplastic crisis*** - Parvovirus B19 preferentially infects and destroys **erythroid progenitor cells** in the bone marrow, leading to a temporary halt in red blood cell production [1]. - This can precipitate an **aplastic crisis**, especially in individuals with underlying chronic hemolytic anemias (e.g., **sickle cell disease** or **hereditary spherocytosis**), where red blood cell lifespan is already shortened [2]. *Hemolytic crisis* - A hemolytic crisis involves an **accelerated destruction of red blood cells**, leading to a sudden drop in hemoglobin. - While parvovirus can indirectly worsen anemia, it primarily affects red cell production rather than directly increasing their destruction, acting more as a trigger for a production problem than a hemolytic one [1]. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** is characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to bleeding disorders. - While viral infections can sometimes cause mild myelosuppression affecting platelets, parvovirus B19 is not typically associated with severe or primary thrombocytopenia. *Pancytopenia* - **Pancytopenia** is a reduction in all three blood cell lines (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). - While parvovirus can cause a transient aplastic crisis (affecting red cells), it rarely causes a severe, sustained suppression of all cell lines to be classified as true pancytopenia, though some transient leukopenia may occur [1].

Q: Which of the following is not true regarding Von Willebrand disease?

Hemarthrosis is the usual presentation. **Hemarthrosis is the usual presentation** - **Hemarthrosis** (bleeding into joints) is characteristic of severe factor deficiencies, such as **hemophilia A or B**, but is uncommon in von Willebrand disease (vWD) [2]. - vWD typically presents with **mucocutaneous bleeding** (e.g., easy bruising, nosebleeds, heavy menstrual bleeding) due to impaired platelet adhesion [2]. *Normal platelet count* - Patients with von Willebrand disease usually have a **normal platelet count**, as the issue is with the function or quantity of **von Willebrand factor (vWF)**, not the number of platelets [3]. - vWF primarily mediates platelet adhesion and protects **factor VIII** from degradation, so platelet production itself is unaffected [1]. *Quantitative defects are seen in subtypes 1 and 3 von Willebrand disease* - **Type 1 vWD** involves a partial **quantitative deficiency** of vWF, meaning reduced levels of otherwise normal vWF. - **Type 3 vWD** is characterized by a severe or near-complete **absence of vWF**, representing the most severe quantitative defect. *Produced by endothelial cells* - **Von Willebrand factor (vWF)** is primarily synthesized and stored in **endothelial cells** (in Weibel-Palade bodies) and also in **megakaryocytes**. - Its production by endothelial cells allows for its release into the bloodstream and subendothelial matrix to facilitate **hemostasis**.

Q: Factor V mutation most commonly initially presents as:-

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). ***Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)*** - Factor V Leiden mutation is a common inherited **thrombophilia**, significantly increasing the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)**. - While VTE encompasses DVT and pulmonary embolism, **DVT is the most frequent initial presentation** because it is the primary thrombotic event leading to other complications [2]. *Thrombosis* - This is a general term for the formation of a **blood clot** that obstructs blood flow. - While Factor V Leiden causes thrombosis, **DVT is a specific and common type** of thrombosis that typically presents first [1]. *Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)* - DIC is a complex, life-threatening condition characterized by widespread activation of coagulation leading to both **thrombosis and hemorrhage**. - It is typically triggered by severe underlying conditions like sepsis or trauma, and is **not a primary presentation of Factor V Leiden mutation**. *Pulmonary Embolism (PE)* - PE occurs when a **blood clot travels to the lungs**, often originating from a DVT. - While Factor V Leiden increases PE risk, **DVT is usually the antecedent event** and thus the more common initial clinical presentation [1].

Q: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cryoglobulinemia?

Hepatitis c. No relevant references were found in the provided sources to support the connection between Hepatitis C and cryoglobulinemia. The available text discusses taste physiology, Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS), and administrative frontmatter (author bios and prefaces), which are not relevant to the clinical question regarding cryoglobulinemia associations. ***Hepatitis C*** - **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection is the most common cause of **mixed cryoglobulinemia**, particularly Type II and Type III. - HCV-associated cryoglobulinemia often presents with **purpura, arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis**. *Ovarian cancer* - While certain cancers can be associated with paraneoplastic syndromes, **ovarian cancer** is not a common cause of cryoglobulinemia. - Cryoglobulinemia associated with malignancies is typically seen with **hematologic cancers** rather than solid tumors like ovarian cancer. *Diabetes* - **Diabetes mellitus** is a metabolic disorder primarily affecting glucose regulation and is not directly linked to the formation of cryoglobulins. - There is no established common association between diabetes and cryoglobulinemia. *Leukemia* - Although some **hematologic malignancies** like multiple myeloma or Waldenström's macroglobulinemia can be associated with cryoglobulinemia (Type I), **leukemia** is not the most common cause overall. - The most prevalent association for mixed cryoglobulinemia remains **chronic infections**, specifically Hepatitis C.

Q: Which of the following is seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

All of the above. ***All of the above*** - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation that can affect various body systems, and the presence of **Rheumatoid Factor (RF)**, **Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide (Anti-CCP) antibodies**, and a **higher risk of extra-articular manifestations** are all characteristic features [1]. - While RF and anti-CCP are diagnostic markers, extra-articular manifestations highlight the systemic nature of the disease, affecting organs beyond the joints. *Presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)* - While many patients with **rheumatoid arthritis** test positive for **RF**, it is not specific to RA and can be seen in other conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, and chronic infections [1]. - Approximately 20% of RA patients are seronegative for RF. *Presence of Anti-CCP antibodies* - **Anti-CCP antibodies** are highly specific for **rheumatoid arthritis** and often appear early in the disease course, making them a valuable diagnostic and prognostic marker [1]. - Their presence is strongly associated with an erosive disease course. *Higher risk of extra-articular manifestations* - **Extra-articular manifestations** of **rheumatoid arthritis** indicate systemic involvement and can include rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis, pleuritis, pericarditis, scleritis, and Felty's syndrome [1]. - The presence of these manifestations often correlates with more severe disease and a poorer prognosis [1].

Question 1

All of the following characteristic patterns seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome; except:-

Accepted Answer

Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature

Answer

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

Answer

Ipsilateral weakness

Answer

Ipsilateral loss of position and vibration

Question 2

A newborn male baby presents with congestive heart failure. On examination, there are enlarged fontanelles, a loud cranial bruit, and the following radiological finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Vein of Galen malformation

Answer

Pneumocephalus

Answer

Crouzon syndrome

Answer

Dandy walker syndrome

Question 3

VMA is elevated in which of the following condition?

Accepted Answer

Pheochromocytoma

Answer

Tuberous sclerosis

Answer

Addison disease

Answer

Conn Syndrome

Question 4

All of the following are true about ulcerative colitis except:

Accepted Answer

Steroid dependent cases need surgery

Answer

Surgery is required in a subset of severe cases.

Answer

Extra-intestinal problems of UC are managed medically

Answer

The highest risk of UC requiring surgery in 1st year

Question 5

Which of the following hematological problems may be precipitated by parvovirus?

Accepted Answer

Aplastic crisis

Answer

Hemolytic crisis

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Answer

Pancytopenia

Question 6

True statement regarding upper GI bleeds:

Accepted Answer

The most common cause of upper GI bleeds is peptic ulcer disease, not variceal bleeding.

Answer

Upper GI bleeding is defined as bleeding originating proximal to the ampulla of Vater, not the ligament of Treitz

Answer

Endoscopic banding is the first-line treatment for all types of upper GI bleeding

Answer

Rockall score is primarily used for immediate treatment decisions rather than risk stratification

Question 7

Which of the following is not true regarding Von Willebrand disease?

Accepted Answer

Hemarthrosis is the usual presentation

Answer

Normal platelet count

Answer

Quantitative defects are seen in subtypes 1 and 3 von Willebrand disease

Answer

Produced by endothelial cells

Question 8

Factor V mutation most commonly initially presents as:-

Accepted Answer

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

Answer

Thrombosis

Answer

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

Answer

Pulmonary Embolism

Question 9

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cryoglobulinemia?

Accepted Answer

Hepatitis c

Answer

Ovarian cancer

Answer

Diabetes

Answer

Leukemia

Question 10

Which of the following is seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF)

Answer

Presence of Anti-CCP antibodies

Answer

Higher risk of extra-articular manifestations

NEET-PG 2018 — Internal Medicine