NEET-PG 2013

1544 Questions — Page 31 of 155

Anatomy

6 questions

Q301

Which testis is typically positioned higher?

Q302

Which part of the heart is located in the anterosuperior sternal region?

Q303

Helicine arteries are branches of which artery?

Q304

A surgeon removes a part of the liver located to the left of the falciform ligament. Which segments of the liver are removed?

Q305

Superior wall of middle ear is formed by ?

Q306

All pass through jugular foramen except

NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 301: Which testis is typically positioned higher?

A. It varies between individuals
B. Left testis
C. Right testis (Correct Answer)
D. Both are at the same level

Explanation: ***Right testis*** - The **right testis** is commonly positioned slightly higher than the left testis in most males [1]. - This anatomical variation is due to the **left spermatic cord** being inherently longer, which allows the left testis to hang lower. *Left testis* - The **left testis** is typically positioned lower than the right testis. - Its lower position is attributed to the generally **longer left spermatic cord**. *It varies between individuals* - While minor individual variations exist, a consistent pattern of the **right testis** being higher is observed in the majority of males. - The differences in cord length lead to a general trend, not complete randomness in height. *Both are at the same level* - It is uncommon for both testes to be at precisely the **same level**. - The **asymmetrical length** of the spermatic cords makes equal positioning rare.

Question 302: Which part of the heart is located in the anterosuperior sternal region?

A. Right atrium and auricle.
B. Left atrium.
C. Left ventricle.
D. Right ventricle. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Right ventricle*** - The **right ventricle** forms the **most anterior part of the heart**, located directly behind the sternum and costal cartilages [1]. - Its position explains why **sternal precordial leads** (e.g., V1, V2) on an ECG primarily reflect right ventricular activity [1]. *Right atrium and auricle* - While part of the right atrium is anterior, the **right ventricle is significantly more anterior** and occupies the majority of the anterosuperior sternal region [1]. - The **right auricle** is a small, anterior appendage, but the broader chamber occupying this region is the ventricle [1]. *Left atrium* - The **left atrium** is the **most posterior chamber of the heart**, forming the base [1]. - It lies near the esophagus, making it susceptible to compression by an enlarged left atrium. *Left ventricle* - The **left ventricle** forms the **apex of the heart** and is located primarily on the **left and inferior** aspects. - It is not the most anterior structure; the right ventricle is positioned anteriorly to it [1].

Question 303: Helicine arteries are branches of which artery?

A. None of the options
B. Femoral artery
C. External pudendal artery
D. Internal pudendal artery (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Internal pudendal artery*** - The **internal pudendal artery** is the primary arterial supply to the external genitalia, and its branches, including the **helicine arteries**, are crucial for erectile function. - In males, these arteries supply the **corpus cavernosa** of the penis, and in females, they supply the **clitoris**, playing a key role in sexual arousal. *Femoral artery* - The **femoral artery** is a large artery in the thigh that supplies blood to the lower limb, but it does not directly branch into the helicine arteries of the genitalia. - Its main branches include the **deep femoral artery** and the **superficial femoral artery**, which are involved in blood supply to the muscles and skin of the thigh. *External pudendal artery* - The **external pudendal artery** branches off the femoral artery and supplies the skin of the external genitalia and the perineum, but not the deeper erectile tissues via helicine arteries. - It primarily provides superficial blood supply, such as to the **scrotum** or **labia majora**, and is distinct from the internal pudendal artery's deeper distribution. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **internal pudendal artery** is indeed the origin of the helicine arteries. - The other options provided are incorrect as they do not directly give rise to the helicine arteries.

Question 304: A surgeon removes a part of the liver located to the left of the falciform ligament. Which segments of the liver are removed?

A. Segments I & IV
B. Segments V & VI
C. Segments VII & VIII
D. Segments II & III (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Segments II & III*** - The liver segments are defined by their **vascular supply** originating from the **portal vein** and **hepatic artery**, and their **biliary drainage** [1]. - The **falciform ligament** separates the **left lobe** of the liver into **medial** and **lateral** sections. The portion to its left corresponds to the lateral left lobe, which includes **segments II and III** [1, 2]. *Segments I & IV* - **Segment I** (`caudate lobe`) is located **posteriorly**, independent of the falciform ligament, and is supplied by both the left and right portal and hepatic arterial systems [1]. - **Segment IV** (`quadrate lobe`) is part of the **medial left lobe** and is situated to the **right of the falciform ligament** [1]. *Segments V & VI* - These segments are located in the **right lobe** of the liver, which is to the **right of the main portal fissure**, and are not associated with the falciform ligament's immediate left. - **Segment V** is **anterior** and **inferior**, and **Segment VI** is **posterior** and **inferior** within the right lobe. *Segments VII & VIII* - These segments are also located in the **right lobe** of the liver, specifically in the **superior** aspects [1]. - **Segment VII** is **posterior** and **superior**, while **Segment VIII** is **anterior** and **superior** in the right lobe, far from the falciform ligament.

Question 305: Superior wall of middle ear is formed by ?

A. Tegmen tympani (Correct Answer)
B. Jugular bulb
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Carotid wall

Explanation: ***Tegmen tympani*** - The **tegmen tympani** is a thin plate of **petrous temporal bone** that forms the roof or superior wall of the middle ear cavity. - This structure separates the middle ear from the **middle cranial fossa** and its contents, including the **temporal lobe of the brain**. *Jugular bulb* - The **jugular bulb** is the dilated superior portion of the **internal jugular vein** and forms part of the **floor (inferior wall)** of the middle ear cavity, not the superior wall. - Its close proximity to the middle ear makes it vulnerable to injury during otologic surgery. *Tympanic membrane* - The **tympanic membrane** (eardrum) forms the **lateral wall** of the middle ear cavity, separating it from the external auditory canal. - It is crucial for **sound transmission** by vibrating in response to sound waves. *Carotid wall* - The **carotid wall** forms the **anterior wall** of the middle ear cavity and is related to the **internal carotid artery** as it narrows through the carotid canal. - This wall is not the superior boundary of the middle ear.

Question 306: All pass through jugular foramen except

A. Mandibular nerve (Correct Answer)
B. Vagus nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Explanation: ***Mandibular nerve*** - The **mandibular nerve** (CN V3) exits the skull through the **foramen ovale**, not the jugular foramen. - It is a branch of the **trigeminal nerve** and is responsible for motor innervation to muscles of mastication and sensory innervation to the lower face and mouth. *Glossopharyngeal nerve* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve** (CN IX) is one of the three cranial nerves that exit through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation including taste from posterior third of tongue and motor to stylopharyngeus muscle. *Vagus nerve* - The **vagus nerve** (CN X) is one of the major cranial nerves that exits the skull through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides extensive motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation to the head, neck, thorax, and abdomen. *Internal jugular vein* - The **internal jugular vein** is formed at the jugular foramen by the continuation of the **sigmoid sinus**, and it exits the skull through this foramen. - It is one of the primary venous drainage pathways for the brain.

Obstetrics and Gynecology

1 questions

Q301

What is a cochleate uterus?

Pathology

3 questions

Q301

Linitis plastica is a type of ?

Q302

In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?

Q303

Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 301: Linitis plastica is a type of ?

A. Benign ulcer
B. GIST
C. Manifestation of gastric cancer (Correct Answer)
D. Plastic-like appearance of stomach lining

Explanation: ***Diffuse carcinoma of stomach*** - Linitis plastica is a specific type of **gastric cancer** characterized by **thickening of the stomach wall**, leading to a rigid, non-distensible abdomen [1]. - It often presents with **significant weight loss** and **early satiety**, distinguishing it from other stomach conditions. *Benign ulcer* - Benign ulcers do not cause the **extensive wall thickening** or **desmoplastic response** seen in linitis plastica [1]. - They typically heal with treatment and are associated with typical ulcer symptoms, unlike the progressive nature of linitis plastica. *Plastic like lining of stomach* - While linitis plastica describes a **plastic-like appearance**, it is not classified as a mere lining change but rather a sign of underlying **malignancy** [1]. - This option misrepresents it as a benign condition rather than a serious **stomach adenocarcinoma**. *GIST* - Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) are **soft tissue tumors** of mesenchymal origin, differing fundamentally from the **invasive** characteristics of linitis plastica [2]. - GISTs typically present with **mass lesions** in the GI tract, not the diffuse rigidity seen in linitis plastica [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, pp. 779-780. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 779.

Question 302: In which condition are Pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells typically seen?

A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Mylodysplastic syndrome*** - Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are characteristic and often observed in myelodysplastic syndromes, indicating an ineffective hematopoiesis [1]. - These cells appear as **hyposegmented neutrophils** and are associated with dysplastic changes in the bone marrow [1]. *Hairy cell leukemia* - Typically presents with **hairy cells** in peripheral blood and often involves splenomegaly; pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells are not usual in this condition. - Associated with **PANCYTOPENIA** and reticulin fibrosis, differing from myelodysplastic syndrome. *Hodgkin's lymphoma* - Characterized by the presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** and typically involves lymphadenopathy. - Peripheral blood findings generally do not include pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells; the focus is on lymphatic tissue. *Multiple myeloma* - Commonly presents with **plasma cells** and related symptoms like bone pain and renal failure, not associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells. - It primarily causes an increase in monoclonal proteins rather than dysplastic changes seen in myelodysplastic syndrome. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 613-614.

Question 303: Gastric carcinoma is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Over expression of C-met
B. Inactivation of p53
C. Over expression of C-erb
D. Activation of RAS (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Activation of RAS*** - **RAS mutations** are relatively uncommon in gastric carcinoma compared to other gastrointestinal malignancies. While KRAS mutations can occur in approximately 10-15% of gastric cancers (particularly intestinal type), they are **far less frequent** than in **pancreatic adenocarcinoma** (~90%) or **colorectal carcinoma** (~40%). - In the context of gastric carcinoma, RAS pathway alterations are **not considered a major oncogenic driver** compared to the other molecular changes listed, making this the **LEAST characteristically associated** alteration. *Inactivation of p53* - **Inactivation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene** is one of the most frequent molecular events in gastric carcinoma, occurring in approximately **50-60% of cases**. - Loss of p53 function leads to genomic instability, uncontrolled cell proliferation, and resistance to apoptosis, contributing significantly to **tumorigenesis** and **poor prognosis**. *Over expression of C-met* - **Overexpression of C-MET**, a receptor tyrosine kinase for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF), is commonly observed in gastric carcinoma (30-40% of cases) and is strongly linked to **tumor growth**, **invasion**, and **metastasis**. - C-MET amplification and overexpression promote cell proliferation, survival, migration, and angiogenesis, making it an important **therapeutic target** in advanced gastric cancer. *Over expression of C-erb* - **Overexpression of C-erbB-2 (HER2/neu)** is found in approximately **10-20% of gastric adenocarcinomas**, particularly the intestinal type. - HER2 amplification or overexpression is a significant **prognostic and predictive biomarker**, and is specifically targeted by **trastuzumab** (Herceptin) therapy in HER2-positive advanced gastric cancer, improving survival outcomes.