NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Hemolysis. ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.

Q: Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?

Follicular carcinoma. **Follicular carcinoma** - **Hürthle cell carcinoma**, also known as **oxyphilic follicular carcinoma**, is a specific variant of **follicular carcinoma of the thyroid**. - It is characterized by the presence of large polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm known as **Hürthle cells** (or oxyphil cells) within the neoplastic growth. *Medullary carcinoma* - **Medullary carcinoma** originates from the **parafollicular C cells** of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - It is histologically distinct, featuring nests or cords of cells often associated with **amyloid deposits**, and is not related to Hürthle cell morphology. *Papillary carcinoma* - **Papillary carcinoma** is the most common type of thyroid cancer, characterized by distinctive **nuclear features** such as **Orphan Annie eye nuclei**, nuclear grooves, and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. - Its histological origin and morphological appearance are different from Hürthle cell neoplasms, which are follicular in origin. *Anaplastic carcinoma* - **Anaplastic carcinoma** is a highly aggressive and undifferentiated thyroid malignancy with a very poor prognosis. - It is characterized by pleomorphic, giant, and spindle cells and lacks the specific differentiation seen in follicular or Hürthle cell tumors.

Q: Flexner-Wintersteiner rosette is seen in-

Retinoblastoma. ***Retinoblastoma*** - Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are **characteristic histological features** seen in retinoblastoma, indicating retinal differentiation [1]. - These rosettes reflect the **presence of photoreceptor-like structures**, which are specific to this type of tumor [1]. *Hepatoblastoma* - Histologically, hepatoblastoma shows **primitive epithelial cells** and **mixed patterns**, not Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. - It is primarily associated with **liver** and does not present with retinal differentiation. *Nephroblastoma* - Nephroblastoma, or Wilms tumor, typically exhibits **triphasic histology** (epithelial, stromal, and blastemal components) without rosette formation. - It primarily affects the **kidney** and does not involve the retina. *Neuroblastoma* - Neuroblastoma is characterized by **small round blue cells** and **neuroid differentiation** but lacks Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. - This tumor usually arises in the **adrenal glands** or sympathetic nervous system, not in retinal tissue. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Eye, p. 1342.

Q: Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?

Eosinophilic granuloma. ***Eosinophilic granuloma*** - This is a localized form of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis** that typically presents in the head and neck region, often affecting areas like the skull and mandible [1]. - Characterized by **bone lesions** and may present with **pain or swelling** in the affected area, making it a prominent form in children and young adults. *Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis* - Primarily affects the **lungs** and is associated with **cough, dyspnea**, and pulmonary nodules, not the head and neck region. - Occurs predominantly in **smokers** and involves interstitial lung disease patterns on imaging studies. *Hand-schuller-christian disease* - This condition is a systemic form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis that affects multiple systems rather than being localized, commonly presenting with **diabetes insipidus** and bone lesions. - It is often associated with **exophthalmos** and may involve lymphadenopathy, affecting older children and adults, not localized head and neck involvement. *Letterer-siwe disease* - This represents the acute, disseminated form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis, affecting infants, and is marked by systemic symptoms like **fever**, **rash**, and **hepatosplenomegaly** [1]. - Typically presents with serious manifestations and not specifically localized in the **head and neck area** as seen in eosinophilic granuloma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 630.

Q: Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

Increased LAP score. ***Increased LAP score*** - In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, the **LAP score** is typically **low** due to ineffective hematopoiesis and not elevated. - The presence of a low LAP score is inconsistent with the features of this condition, making it the correct choice. *Thrombosis* - Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is **associated with a high risk of thrombosis**, particularly in the **venous system** [2]. - This is due to **increased platelet activation** and excessive thrombin generation resulting from hemolysis. *Hemolysis* - **Hemolysis** is a hallmark feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, where there is **destruction of red blood cells** [2,3]. - Patients often present with signs of hemolytic anemia including **elevated bilirubin** and **low haptoglobin** levels. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** is a common finding in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria due to **expanded consumption** of platelets during episodes of hemolysis. - This can lead to an **increased risk of bleeding** in affected patients. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 601-602. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 650-651.

Q: Which of the following drugs is used for Smoking Cessation?

Bupropion. ***Bupropion*** - **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that is also approved as a smoking cessation aid. It works by inhibiting the reuptake of **dopamine** and **norepinephrine**, which can help reduce nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms. - It is often prescribed as a first-line pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation, with a typical treatment duration of 7-12 weeks. *Buprenorphine* - **Buprenorphine** is a partial opioid agonist primarily used to treat opioid addiction. It is not indicated for smoking cessation. - While it can help manage withdrawal symptoms from opioids, it has no direct mechanism of action that would reduce nicotine dependence or cravings. *Methadone* - **Methadone** is a full opioid agonist primarily used for the treatment of opioid use disorder (OUD) and chronic pain management. It is not used for smoking cessation. - Its mechanism involves binding to opioid receptors to prevent withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings for other opioids. *Naltrexone* - **Naltrexone** is an opioid antagonist used primarily for the treatment of alcohol dependence and opioid use disorder. It is not indicated for smoking cessation. - It blocks the effects of opioids and reduces alcohol cravings, but does not affect nicotine pathways or dependence.

Q: Which of the following drugs is known to have low first pass metabolism?

Theophylline. ***Theophylline*** - **Theophylline** exhibits **low first-pass metabolism**, meaning a significant portion of the orally administered drug reaches systemic circulation unchanged. - This characteristic contributes to its relatively **high bioavailability** when given orally. *Lidocaine* - **Lidocaine** undergoes extensive **first-pass metabolism** in the liver, leading to very low oral bioavailability. - Due to this, it is typically administered **parenterally** (e.g., intravenously or topically) to achieve therapeutic concentrations. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is known for its significant **first-pass metabolism**, which results in a much lower bioavailability after oral administration compared to intravenous. - This extensive metabolism necessitates higher oral doses to achieve the same therapeutic effect as parenteral administration. *Morphine* - **Morphine** also undergoes substantial **first-pass metabolism** in the liver, where it is primarily glucuronidated. - This leads to a lower oral bioavailability compared to other routes of administration and contributes to a higher oral dose requirement.

Q: Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Oral. ***Oral*** - Drugs administered orally are absorbed from the **gastrointestinal tract** and transported via the **portal vein** directly to the liver, where they undergo significant **first-pass metabolism** before reaching systemic circulation. - This hepatic metabolism can drastically reduce the **bioavailability** of the drug, requiring higher doses or alternative administration routes. *Intra-arterial* - This route delivers drugs directly into an **artery** supplying a target tissue or organ, largely bypassing systemic circulation and initial hepatic metabolism. - It is used for localized effects, such as **chemotherapy** for specific tumors, minimizing systemic exposure. *Rectal* - While a portion of rectally administered drugs may bypass the portal circulation by entering the **inferior and middle rectal veins**, a significant amount can still be absorbed into the superior rectal vein, which drains into the portal system. - This means rectal administration offers only **partial avoidance** of first-pass metabolism, making it less complete than IV or intra-arterial routes for bypassing the liver altogether. *Intravenous* - Drugs administered intravenously are delivered directly into the **systemic circulation**, completely bypassing the gastrointestinal tract and the liver's first-pass metabolism. - This route ensures **100% bioavailability** and rapid onset of action, as the drug immediately reaches its target.

Q: Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?

Warfarin. ***Warfarin*** - **Warfarin** exhibits very **high plasma protein binding**, typically greater than 99%, primarily to albumin. - This high binding capacity means that only a small fraction of the drug is free and pharmacologically active. - Due to high protein binding, warfarin is susceptible to drug interactions when displaced from albumin. *Verapamil* - **Verapamil** has a relatively high plasma protein binding, around 90%, but it is not as high as warfarin. - Its binding is predominantly to **albumin** and alpha-1-acid glycoprotein. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** (acetylsalicylic acid) has moderate plasma protein binding, usually between 50-90%, depending on the dosage. - It binds to **albumin** and can displace other protein-bound drugs. *GTN* - **Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)** has moderate plasma protein binding, approximately 60%. - Its rapid onset and short duration of action are primarily due to its extensive first-pass metabolism and quick redistribution, rather than protein binding characteristics.

Q: Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?

Invasive ductal carcinoma. ***Paget's disease*** - Paget's disease of the breast leads to **palpable abnormalities** such as skin changes and underlying mass formation [1]. - Often presents with **nipple discharge** and alterations in the areola, indicating an underlying malignancy [2]. *Non comedo DCIS* - Non comedo ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) typically presents with **microscopic changes** and lacks palpable masses. - Frequently asymptomatic and may not cause any **significant clinical findings** or changes in the breast. *None* - This option suggests the absence of a related condition, which does not address the query about a type of DCIS causing a **palpable abnormality**. - In the context of DCIS, there are sure conditions (like Paget's) that **do cause palpable changes**. *Comedocarcinoma* - This type of DCIS is characterized by **necrosis and calcifications**, rather than a palpable mass. - While potentially aggressive, it usually does not present with noticeable **palpable abnormalities** like Paget's disease. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1061-1062. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.

Question 1

Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Hemolysis

Answer

Iron deficiency anemia

Answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer

Aplastic anemia

Question 2

Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of which type of carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Follicular carcinoma

Answer

Medullary carcinoma

Answer

Papillary carcinoma

Answer

Anaplastic carcinoma

Question 3

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosette is seen in-

Accepted Answer

Retinoblastoma

Answer

Hepatoblastoma

Answer

Nephroblastoma

Answer

Neuroblastoma

Question 4

Localized Langerhans cell histiocytosis affecting head and neck is?

Accepted Answer

Eosinophilic granuloma

Answer

Letterer-siwe disease

Answer

Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Answer

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

Question 5

Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

Accepted Answer

Increased LAP score

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Answer

Hemolysis

Answer

Thrombosis

Question 6

Which of the following drugs is used for Smoking Cessation?

Accepted Answer

Bupropion

Answer

Methadone

Answer

Buprenorphine

Answer

Naltrexone

Question 7

Which of the following drugs is known to have low first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Theophylline

Answer

Lidocaine

Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Morphine

Question 8

Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Oral

Answer

Intra-arterial

Answer

Rectal

Answer

Intravenous

Question 9

Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?

Accepted Answer

Warfarin

Answer

Verapamil

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

GTN

Question 10

Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?

Accepted Answer

Invasive ductal carcinoma

Answer

Non comedo DCIS

Answer

Fibroadenoma

Answer

Comedocarcinoma

NEET-PG 2013

Pathology

Pharmacology

Surgery