NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

3. ***3*** - The distal end of the humerus develops **three primary ossification centers**: the capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle [1]. - These centers appear sequentially and their ossification pattern is important for assessing **skeletal maturity** in children using the CRITOE mnemonic [1]. - The capitellum appears at 1 year, medial epicondyle at 5 years, and trochlea at 9 years. *2* - This number is too low and only accounts for the **capitellum and medial epicondyle**, missing the trochlea. - While these are the first two to appear, there is an additional primary ossification center (trochlea) that develops later. *5* - This number is incorrect; there are only **three primary ossification centers** at the distal humerus, not five. - This may cause confusion with other joints or by counting secondary ossification centers. *4* - This number is incorrect; while the lateral epicondyle does ossify, it is not consistently counted as a **primary ossification center**. - The standard anatomical teaching recognizes **three primary centers**: capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle.

Q: Which chamber of the heart forms the posterior surface?

Left Atrium (LA). ***Left Atrium (LA)*** - The **left atrium** forms the posterior surface of the heart, lying in front of the esophagus and thoracic aorta [1]. - Its posterior position makes it susceptible to enlargement, which can compress the **esophagus** and cause dysphagia [1]. *Right Atrium (RA)* - The **right atrium** primarily forms the right border of the heart and receives deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation. - It lies anteriorly and to the right, behind the sternum and costal cartilages. *Left Ventricle (LV)* - The **left ventricle** forms the apex of the heart and part of the left border. - It is positioned *inferiorly* and *anteriorly*, contributing significantly to the *diaphragmatic surface* of the heart. *Right Ventricle (RV)* - The **right ventricle** forms the majority of the anterior surface of the heart, directly behind the sternum. - It also contributes to the *inferior surface* of the heart, resting on the diaphragm.

Q: Upper two posterior intercostal arteries arise from ?

Superior intercostal artery. ***Superior intercostal artery*** - The **superior intercostal artery** is a branch of the **costocervical trunk**, which itself arises from the subclavian artery. - It supplies the **first two posterior intercostal spaces**, hence the "upper two" mentioned in the question. *Aorta* - The **descending thoracic aorta** directly supplies the posterior intercostal arteries from the **3rd to the 11th intercostal spaces**. - It does not, however, supply the first two posterior intercostal arteries. *Internal mammary artery* - The **internal mammary artery** (also known as the internal thoracic artery) supplies the **anterior intercostal arteries** [1]. - It arises from the **subclavian artery** [1] but is not involved in supplying the posterior intercostal spaces. *Bronchial artery* - **Bronchial arteries** primarily supply the **lungs and bronchi**, providing oxygenated blood to the lung tissue. - They are not the main source of blood supply for the intercostal spaces.

Q: The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?

Profunda femoris. ***Profunda femoris*** - The profunda femoris artery (deep femoral artery) gives rise to the **medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries**, which are the primary blood supply to the femoral head in adults - Specifically, the **medial circumflex femoral artery** and its branches (lateral epiphyseal arteries and retinacular arteries) form an extracapsular arterial ring and penetrate the joint capsule to supply the femoral head - The profunda femoris is thus the main parent vessel responsible for femoral head blood supply *Lateral epiphyseal artery* - This artery is a branch of the **medial circumflex femoral artery**, which originates from the profunda femoris - While it directly supplies the femoral head and is the dominant terminal branch, it represents a more specific component of the arterial network rather than the main source vessel - It provides blood to the lateral and superior portions of the femoral head *Medial epiphyseal artery* - This artery is also a branch of the circumflex femoral arteries, which originate from the profunda femoris - It contributes to the blood supply but is less dominant than the lateral epiphyseal branches - Similar to lateral epiphyseal artery, it is part of the retinacular arterial system *Artery of ligamentum teres* - The **artery of the ligamentum teres** (foveal artery) is an inconsistent and often small vessel, typically a branch of the **obturator artery** or medial circumflex femoral artery - While it contributes to blood supply especially in children, its contribution is usually minor in adults and often insufficient to sustain the femoral head alone - It enters through the fovea capitis and its contribution diminishes with age

Q: Which of the following is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus?

Inferior cerebral vein. Detailed anatomical knowledge of the dural venous sinuses is required to answer this question. Venous drainage from the brain by way of the deep veins and dural sinuses typically empties principally into the internal jugular veins, though blood also drains via the ophthalmic and pterygoid venous plexuses [1]. ***Inferior cerebral vein*** - The **inferior cerebral veins** drain the inferior surface of the cerebral hemispheres and typically empty into the **basal vein of Rosenthal**, **transverse sinus**, or other dural sinuses. - They do **not directly drain** into the cavernous sinus, making this the correct answer. - While some small inferior cerebral veins may occasionally communicate with the cavernous sinus, they are not considered standard tributaries. *Central vein of retina* - The **central vein of retina** drains the retina and exits the eye through the optic nerve. - It drains into the **superior ophthalmic vein**, which then empties into the cavernous sinus. - It is an **indirect tributary** via the superior ophthalmic vein, not a direct tributary itself. *Sphenoparietal sinus* - The **sphenoparietal sinus** is a dural venous sinus that runs along the posterior edge of the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone. - It is a **direct tributary** that drains anteriorly into the cavernous sinus. - This is one of the standard tributaries listed in anatomical texts. *Superior ophthalmic vein* - The **superior ophthalmic vein** is the **major tributary** draining orbital structures including the eyeball, extraocular muscles, and eyelids. - It passes posteriorly through the **superior orbital fissure** to drain directly into the cavernous sinus. - This is the most clinically significant tributary, as infections can spread from the face to the cavernous sinus via this route.

Q: Albumin is the primary transport protein in blood for which of the following substances?

Free fatty acids (FFA). ***Free fatty acids (FFA)*** - **Albumin is the PRIMARY and MAJOR transport protein for free fatty acids** in the bloodstream, with each albumin molecule having **6-7 high-affinity binding sites** for FFAs. - This binding is essential for transporting water-insoluble fatty acids from **adipose tissue** (during lipolysis) to peripheral tissues for **β-oxidation and energy production**. - In the context of lipid metabolism, albumin-FFA transport is the **most quantitatively significant** and physiologically important binding function. - **Clinical relevance:** Impaired albumin levels directly affect FFA transport capacity. *Thyroxine* - While albumin does bind thyroid hormones, **thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)** is the **primary carrier** (~70% of T4), followed by transthyretin (~15%). - Albumin binds only ~10-15% of circulating T4 with **low affinity**, serving as a secondary reserve. - TBG has **much higher affinity** for thyroid hormones than albumin. *Steroid* - Steroids are primarily transported by **specific binding globulins**: **corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG)** for cortisol and **sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)** for testosterone/estrogen. - While albumin binds ~10-20% of steroids, it is a **secondary carrier** with lower affinity than the specific globulins. *Calcium* - Although ~40-45% of plasma calcium is albumin-bound (important for calcium homeostasis), this is a **passive binding function** rather than active transport. - Albumin's role with calcium is primarily **buffering** rather than the dedicated transport function it provides for FFAs. - In the context of **lipid metabolism** and **transport proteins**, FFA binding is the hallmark function of albumin.

Q: The MOST COMMON cause of concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is?

Hypertension. ***Hypertension*** - Chronic **hypertension** is the most common cause of **pressure overload** on the left ventricle, leading to concentric hypertrophy [1]. - In response to the increased afterload, the ventricular wall thickens uniformly inward, reducing the chamber size while maintaining normal wall stress [2]. - Due to its high prevalence (30-40% of adults), hypertension is epidemiologically the most frequent cause of concentric LVH [1]. *Aortic stenosis* - While **aortic stenosis** is the classic pathological cause of **pressure overload** and concentric hypertrophy [2], **hypertension** is more prevalent in the population. - Aortic stenosis causes fixed outflow obstruction, leading to significant pressure work for the left ventricle. - This is the second most common cause but occurs in only 2-5% of elderly patients. *Mitral stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** primarily causes pressure overload on the **left atrium** and **pulmonary circulation**, not the left ventricle. - It doesn't typically lead to **left ventricular hypertrophy** directly; instead, it causes left atrial enlargement and right ventricular hypertrophy. *Aortic regurgitation* - **Aortic regurgitation** results in **volume overload** of the left ventricle due to blood flowing back into the chamber during diastole. - This typically leads to **eccentric hypertrophy**, where the chamber dilates and the wall thickens proportionally, rather than concentric hypertrophy [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 560-562. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 536.

Q: Most common cause of death in SLE in children

Anemia and infections. ***Anemia and infections*** - **Infections** are a leading cause of death in pediatric SLE patients, often due to immunosuppression from the disease itself or its treatment. Although pediatric Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is not a primary immune deficiency, the susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria and recurrent infections seen in primary B- and T-lymphocyte deficiencies mirrors the infection risks managed in these patients [1]. - **Anemia** can contribute to overall morbidity and mortality, although it is less directly a cause of death than severe infections or organ failure. *Lupus nephritis* - While **lupus nephritis** is a common and severe manifestation of SLE in children and a major cause of morbidity, particularly long-term kidney failure, it is not the most frequent immediate cause of death. - Advancements in treatment for nephritis have improved prognosis, shifting the leading cause of mortality to other factors. *Lupus cerebritis* - **Lupus cerebritis** (neuropsychiatric SLE) can be life-threatening, causing seizures, stroke, or psychosis, but it is less common as the primary cause of death compared to infections. - Its presence usually indicates severe disease requiring intensive treatment, but not the most common direct cause of death. *Libman sacks endocarditis* - **Libman-Sacks endocarditis** involves sterile vegetations on heart valves and is a known complication of SLE, but it rarely causes acute mortality in children. - It is more often associated with chronic complications like valvular dysfunction or a source of emboli rather than being the most common cause of death.

Q: When two different chemicals act on two different receptors and their responses are opposite to each other on the same cell, this phenomenon is called?

Physiological antagonism. ***Physiological antagonism*** - This occurs when two drugs act on **different receptors** to produce **opposite physiological effects** within the same system or cell, effectively canceling each other out [1]. - A classic example is the opposing actions of **histamine** (causing bronchoconstriction) and **adrenaline** (causing bronchodilation) on the bronchi [1]. *Chemical antagonism* - This involves a direct **chemical interaction** between two drugs that results in the **inactivation of one or both** of them. - An example is the binding of **chelating agents** to heavy metals, forming an inert complex. *Reversible antagonism* - This describes antagonism where the antagonist binds to the receptor and can be **displaced by a higher concentration of the agonist**. - It does not specifically describe antagonists acting on different receptors or producing opposing physiological effects. *Competitive antagonism* - This occurs when an antagonist directly **competes with an agonist for the same binding site** on a receptor [1]. - The antagonist, while not producing a response itself, prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor.

Q: All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?

Freely reabsorbed. ***Freely reabsorbed*** - A substance used to measure GFR should **not be reabsorbed** by the kidney tubules. If it were reabsorbed, the amount excreted in the urine would be less than the amount filtered, leading to an **underestimation of GFR**. - The ideal GFR marker is **neither reabsorbed nor secreted**, ensuring that its excretion rate directly reflects the filtration rate. *Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane* - For a substance to accurately measure GFR, it must be **freely filtered** from the blood into the Bowman's capsule, without any restriction due to its size or charge. - This ensures that its concentration in the glomerular filtrate is the same as in the plasma, allowing for a direct calculation of the filtration rate. *Not secreted by kidney* - An ideal GFR marker should **not be secreted** by the renal tubules, as active secretion would add to the amount excreted in the urine, leading to an **overestimation of GFR**. - This property, along with not being reabsorbed, ensures that the amount of the substance appearing in the urine solely reflects the amount filtered. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because there is a definitive feature listed among the choices that is *not* a characteristic of an ideal GFR marker. The ability to be "freely reabsorbed" is a disqualifying trait.

Question 1

How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

Accepted Answer

3

Answer

2

Answer

5

Answer

4

Question 2

Which chamber of the heart forms the posterior surface?

Accepted Answer

Left Atrium (LA)

Answer

Right Atrium (RA)

Answer

Left Ventricle (LV)

Answer

Right Ventricle (RV)

Question 3

Upper two posterior intercostal arteries arise from ?

Accepted Answer

Superior intercostal artery

Answer

Internal mammary artery

Answer

Bronchial artery

Answer

Aorta

Question 4

The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?

Accepted Answer

Profunda femoris

Answer

Lateral epiphyseal artery

Answer

Medial epiphyseal artery

Answer

Artery of ligamentum teres

Question 5

Which of the following is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus?

Accepted Answer

Inferior cerebral vein

Answer

Central vein of retina

Answer

Sphenoparietal sinus

Answer

Superior ophthalmic vein

Question 6

Albumin is the primary transport protein in blood for which of the following substances?

Accepted Answer

Free fatty acids (FFA)

Answer

Thyroxine

Answer

Steroid

Answer

Calcium

Question 7

The MOST COMMON cause of concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Aortic stenosis

Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Question 8

Most common cause of death in SLE in children

Accepted Answer

Anemia and infections

Answer

Libman sacks endocarditis

Answer

Lupus cerebritis

Answer

Lupus nephritis

Question 9

When two different chemicals act on two different receptors and their responses are opposite to each other on the same cell, this phenomenon is called?

Accepted Answer

Physiological antagonism

Answer

Chemical antagonism

Answer

Reversible antagonism

Answer

Competitive antagonism

Question 10

All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except?

Accepted Answer

Freely reabsorbed

Answer

Not secreted by kidney

Answer

Freely filtered across the glomerulus membrane

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology