NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What is the nerve supply of the larynx above the level of the vocal cords?

Superior laryngeal. ***Superior laryngeal*** - The **superior laryngeal nerve** branches into the internal and external laryngeal nerves. The **internal laryngeal nerve** (a branch of the superior laryngeal nerve) provides all sensory innervation to the larynx **above the vocal cords**. - It also carries **parasympathetic fibers** to the laryngeal glands in this region. *Recurrent laryngeal* - The **recurrent laryngeal nerve** provides sensory innervation to the larynx **below the vocal cords** [1]. - It also innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle [1]. *Glossopharyngeal* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)** primarily provides sensory innervation to the **posterior one-third of the tongue**, tonsils, pharynx, and middle ear. - It does not directly provide sensory innervation to the larynx. *External laryngeal nerve* - The **external laryngeal nerve**, a branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, is primarily **motor** and innervates the **cricothyroid muscle**. - It provides **no sensory innervation** to any part of the larynx.

Q: All pass through jugular foramen except

Mandibular nerve. ***Mandibular nerve*** - The **mandibular nerve** (CN V3) exits the skull through the **foramen ovale**, not the jugular foramen. - It is a branch of the **trigeminal nerve** and is responsible for motor innervation to muscles of mastication and sensory innervation to the lower face and mouth. *Glossopharyngeal nerve* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve** (CN IX) is one of the three cranial nerves that exit through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation including taste from posterior third of tongue and motor to stylopharyngeus muscle. *Vagus nerve* - The **vagus nerve** (CN X) is one of the major cranial nerves that exits the skull through the **jugular foramen**. - It provides extensive motor, sensory, and parasympathetic innervation to the head, neck, thorax, and abdomen. *Internal jugular vein* - The **internal jugular vein** is formed at the jugular foramen by the continuation of the **sigmoid sinus**, and it exits the skull through this foramen. - It is one of the primary venous drainage pathways for the brain.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?

Suprascapular nerve. Suprascapular nerve - The **suprascapular nerve** originates from the brachial plexus and supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles; it travels through the suprascapular notch and is not found within the occipital triangle. - Its primary course and innervation are associated with the shoulder, entirely separate from the neck region defining the occipital triangle. *Great auricular nerve* - The **great auricular nerve** emerges from the cervical plexus and supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the parotid gland, mastoid process, and auricle, courses superficially across the sternocleidomastoid in the region of the occipital triangle. - It is a recognized content of the posterior triangle of the neck, which encompasses the occipital triangle. *Lesser occipital nerve* - The **lesser occipital nerve** arises from the cervical plexus at C2 and C3, providing sensory innervation to the skin of the neck and scalp posterior to the auricle. - It ascends along the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, placing it within the boundaries of the occipital triangle. *Occipital artery* - The **occipital artery** is a branch of the external carotid artery that supplies blood to the posterior scalp. - It traverses the apex of the posterior triangle (including the occipital triangle) as it ascends to the back of the head.

Q: Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?

Longus colli. ***Longus colli*** - The **longus colli** muscle is the **deepest muscle** located in the anterior neck region, running along the front of the cervical vertebral column from C1 to T3. - It lies in the **prevertebral layer**, deep to all other anterior neck structures including the carotid sheath, visceral compartment, and superficial muscles. - Its position directly anterior to the vertebral bodies makes it the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Platysma* - The platysma is the **most superficial muscle** of the neck, located just beneath the skin in the superficial fascia. - It is not a deep muscle and lies superficial to all other neck muscles. *Sternocleidomastoid* - The sternocleidomastoid is enclosed within the **investing layer of deep cervical fascia**, making it relatively superficial. - While prominent in the anterior and lateral neck, it is not the deepest anterior neck muscle. *Trapezius* - The trapezius is a large, **superficial muscle of the back and posterior neck**. - It is not located in the anterior neck and is a superficial, not deep, muscle.

Q: What anatomical structure does the pineal gland form part of?

Part of the roof of the third ventricle. **_Part of the roof of the third ventricle_** - The **pineal gland** is a small, pinecone-shaped endocrine gland that forms part of the **roof of the third ventricle** [1]. - It is attached to the roof by the **pineal stalk** and projects posteriorly from the **epithalamus**. - The roof of the third ventricle consists of the **tela choroidea**, the **pineal gland**, and the **choroid plexus** [1]. - The pineal gland regulates circadian rhythms through **melatonin** secretion. *Part of the posterior wall of the third ventricle* - The **posterior wall** of the third ventricle is formed by the **posterior commissure**, the **pineal recess**, and the **habenular commissure**. - While the pineal gland is located posteriorly, it is anatomically classified as part of the roof, not the posterior wall itself. *Part of the anterior wall of the third ventricle* - The **anterior wall** is formed by the **lamina terminalis**, **anterior commissure**, and columns of the fornix. - This is located at the opposite end of the third ventricle from the pineal gland. *Part of the floor of the third ventricle* - The **floor** is formed by structures of the **hypothalamus**, including the **optic chiasm**, **tuber cinereum**, **infundibulum**, and **mammillary bodies**. - The pineal gland is situated dorsally (superiorly), not in the floor.

Q: Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Protection against malaria. Protection against malaria - Individuals with thalassemia, particularly thalassemia trait, have some degree of protection against severe forms of malaria, specifically Plasmodium falciparum [1]. - The altered red blood cell structure and reduced hemoglobin content in thalassemia make the red blood cells less hospitable for the parasites, hindering their replication and survival [1]. Protection against filaria - Filaria is caused by parasitic worms (nematodes) transmitted by mosquitoes, leading to lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis) or onchocerciasis (river blindness). - Thalassemia's primary impact is on red blood cell health and oxygen transport, offering no known protective effect against nematode infections or their associated pathology. Protection against kala-azar - Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is caused by Leishmania parasites transmitted by sandflies, primarily affecting the reticuloendothelial system (spleen, liver, bone marrow). - There is no established scientific evidence indicating that thalassemia provides protection against Leishmania infections or their clinical manifestations. Protection against leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by Leptospira bacteria, typically acquired through contact with contaminated water or animal urine. - Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder; its physiological effects are unrelated to the mechanisms of infection or immunity against bacterial pathogens like Leptospira.

Q: Cryoprecipitate is useful in which of the following conditions?

Afibrinogenemia. ***Afibrinogenemia*** - Cryoprecipitate is rich in **fibrinogen**, factor VIII, factor XIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibronectin. It is the only blood product with a substantial concentration of fibrinogen. - **Afibrinogenemia** (or hypofibrinogenemia) is a condition characterized by low or absent levels of fibrinogen, a critical clotting factor that cryoprecipitate replaces effectively. *Hemophilia A* - Hemophilia A is a deficiency of **Factor VIII**. While cryoprecipitate contains factor VIII, **recombinant Factor VIII concentrates** are the preferred treatment due to better safety (reduced risk of viral transmission) and more precise dosing [1]. - Cryoprecipitate was historically used for Hemophilia A before the availability of safer, more specific factor concentrates [2]. *Thrombosthenia* - Thrombasthenia is a platelet function disorder characterized by defective **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors** on platelets, leading to impaired platelet aggregation. - Cryoprecipitate does not contain platelets or factors that directly correct platelet function, making **platelet transfusions** the treatment of choice for severe bleeding in thrombasthenia. *Warfarin reversal* - Warfarin reversal is primarily achieved using **Vitamin K**, which restores levels of functional clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. - For rapid reversal in emergencies, **prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)** is preferred because it contains high concentrations of these vitamin K-dependent factors, addressing the primary deficiency caused by warfarin [1].

Q: Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?

Ringed sideroblasts are associated with sickle cell anemia.. ***Ringed sideroblast*** - **Ringed sideroblasts** are not typically associated with sickle cell anemia; they are indicative of disorders like **sideroblastic anemia**. - In sickle cell anemia, the primary findings include **hemolysis** and ineffective erythropoiesis, not ringed sideroblasts [3]. *Howell jolly bodies* - These bodies are remnants of nuclear material and can be found in individuals with **spleen dysfunction**, which can occur in sickle cell anemia [1]. - They are actually a common finding due to **hyposplenism** or **asplenia** in patients with sickle cell disease [2]. *Sickle cells* - The presence of **sickle-shaped red blood cells** is a hallmark of sickle cell anemia, caused by the mutation in the **beta-globin chain** [3]. - These sickle cells are responsible for the characteristic complications of the disease, such as **vaso-occlusive crises** [1][3]. *Target cells* - Target cells, or **codocytes**, are often seen in disorders like **thalassemia** and liver disease, and can also be present in sickle cell anemia. - They are formed due to an increase in the **surface area to volume ratio** of red blood cells, often secondary to **membrane abnormalities** seen in sickle cell changes [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 644-646. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 570-571. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 598-599.

Q: Which of the following drugs is used for Smoking Cessation?

Bupropion. ***Bupropion*** - **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that is also approved as a smoking cessation aid. It works by inhibiting the reuptake of **dopamine** and **norepinephrine**, which can help reduce nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms. - It is often prescribed as a first-line pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation, with a typical treatment duration of 7-12 weeks. *Buprenorphine* - **Buprenorphine** is a partial opioid agonist primarily used to treat opioid addiction. It is not indicated for smoking cessation. - While it can help manage withdrawal symptoms from opioids, it has no direct mechanism of action that would reduce nicotine dependence or cravings. *Methadone* - **Methadone** is a full opioid agonist primarily used for the treatment of opioid use disorder (OUD) and chronic pain management. It is not used for smoking cessation. - Its mechanism involves binding to opioid receptors to prevent withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings for other opioids. *Naltrexone* - **Naltrexone** is an opioid antagonist used primarily for the treatment of alcohol dependence and opioid use disorder. It is not indicated for smoking cessation. - It blocks the effects of opioids and reduces alcohol cravings, but does not affect nicotine pathways or dependence.

Q: Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Oral. ***Oral*** - Drugs administered orally are absorbed from the **gastrointestinal tract** and transported via the **portal vein** directly to the liver, where they undergo significant **first-pass metabolism** before reaching systemic circulation. - This hepatic metabolism can drastically reduce the **bioavailability** of the drug, requiring higher doses or alternative administration routes. *Intra-arterial* - This route delivers drugs directly into an **artery** supplying a target tissue or organ, largely bypassing systemic circulation and initial hepatic metabolism. - It is used for localized effects, such as **chemotherapy** for specific tumors, minimizing systemic exposure. *Rectal* - While a portion of rectally administered drugs may bypass the portal circulation by entering the **inferior and middle rectal veins**, a significant amount can still be absorbed into the superior rectal vein, which drains into the portal system. - This means rectal administration offers only **partial avoidance** of first-pass metabolism, making it less complete than IV or intra-arterial routes for bypassing the liver altogether. *Intravenous* - Drugs administered intravenously are delivered directly into the **systemic circulation**, completely bypassing the gastrointestinal tract and the liver's first-pass metabolism. - This route ensures **100% bioavailability** and rapid onset of action, as the drug immediately reaches its target.

Question 1

What is the nerve supply of the larynx above the level of the vocal cords?

Accepted Answer

Superior laryngeal

Answer

Recurrent laryngeal

Answer

Glossopharyngeal

Answer

External laryngeal nerve

Question 2

All pass through jugular foramen except

Accepted Answer

Mandibular nerve

Answer

Vagus nerve

Answer

Internal jugular vein

Answer

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a content of the occipital triangle?

Accepted Answer

Suprascapular nerve

Answer

Lesser occipital nerve

Answer

Occipital artery

Answer

Great auricular nerve

Question 4

Which muscle is the deepest in the anterior neck region?

Accepted Answer

Longus colli

Answer

Sternocleidomastoid

Answer

Platysma

Answer

Trapezius

Question 5

What anatomical structure does the pineal gland form part of?

Accepted Answer

Part of the roof of the third ventricle

Answer

Part of the anterior wall of the third ventricle

Answer

Part of the floor of the third ventricle

Answer

Part of the posterior wall of the third ventricle

Question 6

Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Accepted Answer

Protection against malaria

Answer

Protection against filaria

Answer

Protection against kala-azar

Answer

Protection against leptospirosis

Question 7

Cryoprecipitate is useful in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Afibrinogenemia

Answer

Hemophilia A

Answer

Thrombosthenia

Answer

Warfarin reversal

Question 8

Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is false?

Accepted Answer

Ringed sideroblasts are associated with sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Sickle cells are present in sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Target cells are commonly seen in sickle cell anemia.

Answer

Howell Jolly bodies can be found in sickle cell anemia.

Question 9

Which of the following drugs is used for Smoking Cessation?

Accepted Answer

Bupropion

Answer

Methadone

Answer

Buprenorphine

Answer

Naltrexone

Question 10

Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Oral

Answer

Intra-arterial

Answer

Rectal

Answer

Intravenous

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Pharmacology