NEET-PG 2013

1544 Questions — Page 19 of 155

Anatomy

2 questions

Q181

Which of the following is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus?

Q182

Medulla oblongata arises from which of the following?

NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 181: Which of the following is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus?

A. Central vein of retina
B. Sphenoparietal sinus
C. Inferior cerebral vein (Correct Answer)
D. Superior ophthalmic vein

Explanation: Detailed anatomical knowledge of the dural venous sinuses is required to answer this question. Venous drainage from the brain by way of the deep veins and dural sinuses typically empties principally into the internal jugular veins, though blood also drains via the ophthalmic and pterygoid venous plexuses [1]. ***Inferior cerebral vein*** - The **inferior cerebral veins** drain the inferior surface of the cerebral hemispheres and typically empty into the **basal vein of Rosenthal**, **transverse sinus**, or other dural sinuses. - They do **not directly drain** into the cavernous sinus, making this the correct answer. - While some small inferior cerebral veins may occasionally communicate with the cavernous sinus, they are not considered standard tributaries. *Central vein of retina* - The **central vein of retina** drains the retina and exits the eye through the optic nerve. - It drains into the **superior ophthalmic vein**, which then empties into the cavernous sinus. - It is an **indirect tributary** via the superior ophthalmic vein, not a direct tributary itself. *Sphenoparietal sinus* - The **sphenoparietal sinus** is a dural venous sinus that runs along the posterior edge of the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone. - It is a **direct tributary** that drains anteriorly into the cavernous sinus. - This is one of the standard tributaries listed in anatomical texts. *Superior ophthalmic vein* - The **superior ophthalmic vein** is the **major tributary** draining orbital structures including the eyeball, extraocular muscles, and eyelids. - It passes posteriorly through the **superior orbital fissure** to drain directly into the cavernous sinus. - This is the most clinically significant tributary, as infections can spread from the face to the cavernous sinus via this route.

Question 182: Medulla oblongata arises from which of the following?

A. Mesencephalon
B. Myelencephalon (Correct Answer)
C. Rhombencephalon
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Myelencephalon*** - The **myelencephalon** is the most caudal of the three primary brain vesicles and is the developmental origin of the **medulla oblongata**. - It differentiates from the **rhombencephalon** (hindbrain) and is responsible for vital autonomic functions. *Rhombencephalon* - The **rhombencephalon** is the hindbrain and is a primary brain vesicle that further divides into the **metencephalon** and **myelencephalon**. - While it is the parent structure, it does not directly give rise to the medulla oblongata as a final differentiated structure without further division. *Mesencephalon* - The **mesencephalon** is the midbrain, a primary brain vesicle that develops into structures like the **tectum** and **tegmentum** [1]. - It is located rostral to the rhombencephalon and is not involved in the development of the medulla oblongata [1]. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **myelencephalon** is the direct embryonic precursor of the medulla oblongata.

Internal Medicine

3 questions

Q181

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

Q182

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

Q183

What is the most common location of gastrinoma?

NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 181: Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

A. Post-operative atelectasis (Correct Answer)
B. Kyphoscoliosis
C. Flail chest
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation: ***Post-operative atelectasis*** - **Type 3 respiratory failure**, also known as **perioperative respiratory failure**, is characterized by hypoxemia occurring typically after surgery. - **Atelectasis**, the collapse of lung tissue, is a common cause of hypoxemia in the post-operative period due to shallow breathing, pain, and anesthesia affecting lung volumes. *Kyphoscoliosis* - This condition leads to a **restrictive lung disease** due to chest wall deformity, causing chronic respiratory failure. [1] - It more typically results in **Type 2 respiratory failure** (hypercapnic) due to impaired ventilation over time. [1] *Flail chest* - Flail chest is a severe chest wall injury causing paradoxical movement, leading to **acute respiratory failure**. - It is often associated with **Type 1 (hypoxemic)** or **Type 2 (hypercapnic)** respiratory failure due to trauma-induced lung injury and impaired mechanics. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - This is a progressive interstitial lung disease causing **restrictive ventilatory defect** and impaired gas exchange. - It leads to chronic **Type 1 respiratory failure** (hypoxemic) as the lung tissue becomes stiff and scarred.

Question 182: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance (Correct Answer)
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Hamartomatous polyp

Explanation: ***High risk of malignancy*** - Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is primarily associated with **benign hamartomatous polyps**, not a **high risk of malignancy**, which distinguishes it from other syndromes. - Although patients may develop cancers [1], the syndrome itself does not inherently denote a high malignancy risk like other syndromes such as familial adenomatous polyposis. *Autosomal dominant* - This syndrome is indeed **autosomal dominant**, caused by mutations in the STK11 gene. - Families with this condition typically show **vertical transmission**, characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance. *Hamartomatous polyp* - Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop **hamartomatous polyps**, which are a hallmark feature of the condition [1]. - These polyps can occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are benign lesions rather than adenomatous type seen in other syndromes [1]. *Mucocutaneous pigmentation* - Mucocutaneous pigmentation, such as **freckling around the lips and buccal mucosa**, is a key clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. - This pigmentation usually appears in childhood and is often a distinguishing sign of the syndrome.

Question 183: What is the most common location of gastrinoma?

A. Pancreas
B. Duodenum (Correct Answer)
C. Jejunum
D. Gall bladder

Explanation: ***Duodenum*** - The **duodenum** is the most common site for gastrinomas, accounting for over **half of all cases**, particularly in sporadic gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - These tumors are often **small** and **multiple** in the duodenum, making them challenging to locate. *Pancreas* - Pancreatic gastrinomas are also common, representing approximately **25-40% of cases**, but are less frequent than duodenal gastrinomas. - Pancreatic gastrinomas tend to be **larger** and more amenable to surgical resection when compared to duodenal gastrinomas. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas found in the jejunum are **rare**, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. - The small intestine distal to the duodenum is an **uncommon site** for primary gastrinoma formation. *Gall bladder* - The **gallbladder** is not a typical location for gastrinoma development. - Gastrinomas are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from **gastrin-producing cells**, which are not found in the gallbladder.

Pathology

1 questions

Q181

Which of the following is not a germ cell tumor?

Physiology

4 questions

Q181

Fever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?

Q182

Which equation is used to calculate physiological dead space?

Q183

Which of the following stimuli is primarily responsible for triggering the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?

Q184

When blood pressure falls below 40 mm Hg, which mechanism of regulation is working?

NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 181: Fever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?

A. 100 ml/day
B. 200 ml/day (Correct Answer)
C. 400 ml/day
D. 800 ml/day

Explanation: ***200 ml/day*** - For every 1-degree Celsius (or 1.8-degree Fahrenheit) increase in body temperature, there is an approximate **200 ml increase in insensible water loss** per day due to increased metabolism and sweating. - This value highlights the importance of **adequate fluid replacement** in febrile patients to prevent dehydration. *100 ml/day* - This value is **insufficient** to account for the increased insensible fluid losses associated with fever. - Using this estimate could lead to **underestimation of fluid requirements** and potential dehydration in febrile patients. *400 ml/day* - This value is **higher than the typical estimated increase** in water loss per degree Celsius of fever. - While extreme fever might cause higher losses, 200 ml/day is the standard clinical approximation for a 1-degree rise. *800 ml/day* - This value represents a **significant overestimation** of the fluid loss per degree Celsius increase in fever. - Such a high estimate would generally be seen only in very severe conditions or with much larger temperature increases.

Question 182: Which equation is used to calculate physiological dead space?

A. Dalton's law
B. Bohr equation (Correct Answer)
C. Charles's law
D. Boyle's law

Explanation: ***Bohr equation*** - The Bohr equation is used to calculate **physiological dead space**, which is the sum of anatomical dead space and alveolar dead space. - It relates the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air, along with **tidal volume** and expired volume. *Dalton's law* - Dalton's law states that the **total pressure** exerted by a mixture of non-reactive gases is equal to the **sum of the partial pressures** of individual gases. - It is used to calculate partial pressures of gases in a mixture, not dead space. *Charles's law* - Charles's law describes the relationship between the **volume and temperature** of a gas at constant pressure. - It states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature. *Boyle's law* - Boyle's law describes the inverse relationship between the **pressure and volume** of a gas at constant temperature. - It is fundamental to understanding mechanics of breathing, but not dead space calculation.

Question 183: Which of the following stimuli is primarily responsible for triggering the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?

A. Parasympathetic withdrawal
B. Decreased venous return
C. Increased sympathetic stimulation
D. Activation of cardiac C-fiber afferents (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Activation of cardiac C-fiber afferents*** - The **Bezold-Jarisch reflex** is primarily triggered by stimulation of **cardiac mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors** located in the ventricles, particularly the inferoposterior wall of the left ventricle. - These receptors have **unmyelinated vagal C-fiber afferents** that transmit signals to the medullary cardiovascular centers. - Activation of these afferents leads to the characteristic triad: **bradycardia, hypotension, and vasodilation** via increased parasympathetic activity and withdrawal of sympathetic tone. - Common triggers include vigorous ventricular contraction with decreased filling, certain drugs (veratridine), myocardial ischemia (especially inferior wall MI), and reperfusion. *Decreased venous return* - While **decreased venous return** creates the hemodynamic context (ventricular underfilling) that can lead to vigorous contraction of a relatively empty ventricle, it is not itself the *trigger* of the reflex. - The actual trigger is the activation of the ventricular receptors sensing this abnormal contraction pattern, which then signal via C-fiber afferents. - Decreased venous return alone, without receptor activation, would not produce the reflex. *Parasympathetic withdrawal* - **Parasympathetic withdrawal** would cause tachycardia and is opposite to the Bezold-Jarisch reflex, which involves **increased parasympathetic activity**. - This is a compensatory response seen in other reflexes like the baroreceptor reflex during hypotension. *Increased sympathetic stimulation* - **Increased sympathetic stimulation** produces tachycardia, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction—effects opposite to the Bezold-Jarisch reflex. - The reflex actually causes **sympathetic withdrawal** along with parasympathetic activation.

Question 184: When blood pressure falls below 40 mm Hg, which mechanism of regulation is working?

A. CNS ischemic reflex (Correct Answer)
B. Chemoreceptor response
C. Baroreceptor response
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***CNS ischemic reflex*** - The **CNS ischemic reflex** is activated when blood pressure falls below 60 mmHg, with maximal activation below 40 mmHg, indicating severe ischemia in the brain's vasomotor center. - This reflex elicits an intense **sympathetic vasoconstriction** and cardiac stimulation to prioritize blood flow to the brain even at the expense of other organs. *Chemoreceptor response* - The chemoreceptor reflex is primarily activated by a decrease in **arterial pO2**, an increase in **pCO2**, or a decrease in **pH**. - While it can increase blood pressure, it is not the primary or most profound regulatory mechanism specifically triggered by extremely low blood pressure (below 40 mmHg) to prevent brain ischemia. *Baroreceptor response* - **Baroreceptors** are most sensitive to changes in blood pressure within the normal to moderately hypotensive range (e.g., 60-180 mmHg). - At very low pressures (below 40-50 mmHg), baroreceptors become **less sensitive** or "saturated," and their effectiveness in raising blood pressure significantly diminishes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **CNS ischemic reflex** specifically functions as a powerful, last-ditch mechanism to maintain cerebral blood flow during severe hypotension which is a life saving reflex during conditions like hemorrhage.