NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

3. ***3*** - The distal end of the humerus develops **three primary ossification centers**: the capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle [1]. - These centers appear sequentially and their ossification pattern is important for assessing **skeletal maturity** in children using the CRITOE mnemonic [1]. - The capitellum appears at 1 year, medial epicondyle at 5 years, and trochlea at 9 years. *2* - This number is too low and only accounts for the **capitellum and medial epicondyle**, missing the trochlea. - While these are the first two to appear, there is an additional primary ossification center (trochlea) that develops later. *5* - This number is incorrect; there are only **three primary ossification centers** at the distal humerus, not five. - This may cause confusion with other joints or by counting secondary ossification centers. *4* - This number is incorrect; while the lateral epicondyle does ossify, it is not consistently counted as a **primary ossification center**. - The standard anatomical teaching recognizes **three primary centers**: capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle.

Q: Which of the following statements is false about the right bronchus?

More horizontal. ***More horizontal*** - The right bronchus is traditionally described as **more vertical** or **more directly in line with the trachea** compared to the left bronchus. - This anatomical orientation makes it more susceptible to the aspiration of foreign bodies. *Shorter* - The **right main bronchus** is indeed shorter than the left main bronchus. - Its length is typically 2-3 cm, while the left main bronchus is about 5 cm long. *Wider* - The **right main bronchus** has a larger diameter than the left main bronchus. - This wider lumen contributes to the ease with which foreign bodies can enter it. *In the line of trachea* - The right main bronchus diverges from the trachea at a **less acute angle** (approximately 25 degrees) compared to the left (approximately 45 degrees). - This makes it appear more as a **direct continuation of the trachea**, facilitating aspiration into the right lung.

Q: Which of the following statements about vitamin E is false?

Water soluble vitamin. ***Water soluble vitamin*** - This statement is false because **vitamin E** is a **fat-soluble vitamin**, meaning it dissolves in lipids and is stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver. - Its absorption requires the presence of dietary fat and bile salts, unlike water-soluble vitamins. *Act as antioxidant* - **Vitamin E** is a powerful **lipid-soluble antioxidant**, protecting cell membranes from damage by scavenging **free radicals**. - It helps prevent **oxidative damage** to polyunsaturated fatty acids within cell membranes. *Chemically tocopherol* - The most biologically active form of **vitamin E** is **alpha-tocopherol**, although vitamin E encompasses a group of eight fat-soluble compounds, including tocopherols and tocotrienols. - This term correctly identifies the chemical nature of the prominent forms of vitamin E. *Prevent lipid peroxidation of cell membrane* - As an **antioxidant**, **vitamin E** specifically interferes with the **propagation of lipid peroxidation**, a chain reaction that damages cell membranes by oxidizing their lipid components. - It donates an electron to **free radicals**, thereby neutralizing them and protecting the integrity of the cell membrane.

Q: Which of the following is not an androgen?

17α-hydroxyprogesterone. ***17α-hydroxyprogesterone*** - This is a **progesterone derivative** and an intermediate in the synthesis of androgens and corticosteroids, but it does **not possess significant androgenic activity** itself. - Its primary role is as a precursor, rather than a direct androgen. *Testosterone* - **Testosterone** is the **primary male sex hormone** and a potent androgen, responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. - It plays crucial roles in muscle mass, bone density, libido, and erythropoiesis. *Dihydrotestosterone* - **Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** is a potent androgen, formed from testosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase. - DHT is responsible for the development of external male genitalia during fetal development and contributes to prostate growth and male pattern baldness in adults. *Androstenedione* - **Androstenedione** is a **weak androgen** and an important **precursor hormone** in the biosynthesis of testosterone and estrogens. - It is produced in the adrenal glands and gonads, serving as an intermediate step in steroidogenesis.

Q: Which type of RNA is most commonly associated with pseudouridine?

transfer RNA (tRNA). ***Transfer RNA (tRNA)*** - **Pseudouridine (ψ)** is one of the most abundant modified nucleosides in RNA, and **tRNA contains the highest proportion** of pseudouridine modifications among all RNA types. - **tRNA molecules can contain up to 10-15% modified bases**, with pseudouridine being particularly abundant in the **TψC arm** (thymine-pseudouridine-cytosine loop). - These modifications are critical for **tRNA stability, proper folding, and accurate codon-anticodon recognition** during translation. - Pseudouridine enhances base stacking and stabilizes RNA structure through additional hydrogen bonding capability. *Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)* - While rRNA does contain pseudouridine modifications, they are present in **lower proportions compared to tRNA**. - rRNA pseudouridine modifications do play important roles in **ribosomal assembly and function**, but tRNA remains the RNA type most commonly associated with this modification. *Messenger RNA (mRNA)* - **mRNA is generally much less modified** than tRNA or rRNA. - Pseudouridine modifications in mRNA are relatively rare in prokaryotes and were only recently discovered to be more common in eukaryotic mRNA. - When present, they may affect **mRNA stability and translation efficiency**. *DNA* - **DNA does not contain pseudouridine** as this is an RNA-specific modification. - Pseudouridine is formed by **post-transcriptional isomerization** of uridine residues in RNA.

Q: Which of the following lipoproteins is most strongly associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases and is commonly referred to as "bad cholesterol"?

LDL. ***LDL*** - **Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)** is commonly referred to as "bad" cholesterol because elevated levels are the **primary driver** of atherosclerotic plaque buildup in arterial walls. - LDL particles transport cholesterol from the liver to peripheral tissues; when present in excess, they infiltrate the arterial intima and undergo oxidative modification, triggering inflammatory responses that lead to atherosclerosis. - **Clinical significance:** LDL cholesterol is the primary target of lipid-lowering therapy in cardiovascular disease prevention. *VLDL* - **Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)** primarily transports endogenously synthesized **triglycerides** from the liver to peripheral tissues. - While elevated VLDL levels do contribute to cardiovascular risk (particularly through conversion to small, dense LDL particles), it is not the primary lipoprotein targeted in cardiovascular risk assessment. *Chylomicron* - **Chylomicrons** transport **dietary lipids** (triglycerides and cholesterol) from the intestines to tissues after meals. - They are rapidly cleared from circulation (half-life of 5-10 minutes) and are typically not present during fasting, making their contribution to chronic atherosclerotic plaque formation minimal. *Lp(a)* - **Lipoprotein(a) [Lp(a)]** is structurally similar to LDL but contains an additional apolipoprotein(a) molecule, which has homology to plasminogen and may interfere with fibrinolysis. - While Lp(a) is an independent cardiovascular risk factor, it is less commonly measured in routine clinical practice, and **LDL remains the cornerstone lipoprotein** for cardiovascular risk stratification and management.

Q: Which of the following is a neutral amino acid?

Glycine. ***Glycine*** - **Glycine** has a hydrogen atom as its side chain, making it the **simplest amino acid** and electrically neutral at physiological pH. - Its **nonpolar side chain** contributes to its neutral charge and allows it to fit into various protein structures. *Aspartate* - **Aspartate** is an **acidic amino acid** with a carboxyl group in its side chain. - This **carboxyl group** can lose a proton, giving aspartate a net negative charge at physiological pH. *Arginine* - **Arginine** is a **basic amino acid** characterized by a guanidinium group in its side chain. - The **guanidinium group** contains multiple nitrogen atoms that can accept protons, making arginine positively charged at physiological pH. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is classified as a **basic amino acid** due to the imidazole ring in its side chain. - The **imidazole ring** has a pKa close to physiological pH, allowing it to be protonated and positively charged, but it is not neutral.

Q: What is the complete classic triad of findings that defines Young's syndrome?

Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis. ***Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis*** - Young's syndrome is characterized by the triad of **azoospermia** (due to obstructive epididymal dysfunction), **bronchiectasis**, and **chronic sinusitis** [1]. - This syndrome primarily affects **middle-aged men** and is often mistaken for cystic fibrosis due to similar respiratory symptoms. *Azoospermia, asthma, and chronic rhinitis* - This option incorrectly lists **asthma** and **chronic rhinitis** instead of bronchiectasis and chronic sinusitis. - While respiratory symptoms are part of Young's syndrome, specifically **bronchiectasis** and **sinusitis** are key [1]. *Oligospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis* - This option is incorrect because Young's syndrome is defined by **azoospermia** (complete absence of sperm), not just **oligospermia** (low sperm count). - The obstructive nature of the epididymal dysfunction in Young's syndrome leads to a complete lack of sperm. *Azoospermia, chronic bronchitis, and nasal polyps* - This option incorrectly identifies **chronic bronchitis** and **nasal polyps** as part of the classic triad. - The correct respiratory components are **bronchiectasis** and **chronic sinusitis**, which signify persistent inflammation and structural lung changes rather than simply bronchitis.

Q: In which of the following conditions is protein catabolism MOST increased?

Burns. ***Burns*** - Severe burns lead to a profound **hypermetabolic state** with the highest increase in **protein catabolism** among all the options listed. - The extensive tissue damage triggers massive breakdown of muscle protein to provide amino acids for **wound healing**, **acute phase protein synthesis**, and **immune response**. - Burns can increase metabolic rate by **100-200%**, with protein catabolism far exceeding that of other stress conditions. *Starvation* - While starvation initially increases protein catabolism, the body adapts within days by shifting towards **ketone body utilization** to spare protein. - After adaptation, protein breakdown decreases to **20-30 grams per day** to preserve lean body mass. - The goal is survival through metabolic adaptation, not tissue repair. *Surgery* - Major surgery induces a **stress response** that increases protein catabolism, but it is typically less severe and shorter-lived than burns. - The degree of catabolism is proportional to the **magnitude of surgical trauma** and usually resolves within days. - Protein catabolism increases by **50-75%** in major surgery compared to **100-200%** in severe burns. *Fever* - Fever increases basal metabolic rate by approximately **13% per degree Celsius** rise in body temperature. - While metabolism is elevated, protein catabolism is **modest** compared to the massive tissue destruction and repair demands of severe burns. - The increase is primarily in energy expenditure, not protein breakdown.

Question 1

How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?

Accepted Answer

3

Answer

2

Answer

5

Answer

4

Question 2

Which of the following statements is false about the right bronchus?

Accepted Answer

More horizontal

Answer

Shorter

Answer

In the line of trachea

Answer

Wider

Question 3

Which of the following statements about vitamin E is false?

Accepted Answer

Water soluble vitamin

Answer

Act as antioxidant

Answer

Chemically tocopherol

Answer

Prevent lipid peroxidation of cell membrane

Question 4

Which of the following is not an androgen?

Accepted Answer

17α-hydroxyprogesterone

Answer

Testosterone

Answer

Dihydrotestosterone

Answer

Androstenedione

Question 5

Which type of RNA is most commonly associated with pseudouridine?

Accepted Answer

transfer RNA (tRNA)

Answer

messenger RNA (mRNA)

Answer

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Answer

DNA

Question 6

Which of the following lipoproteins is most strongly associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases and is commonly referred to as "bad cholesterol"?

Accepted Answer

LDL

Answer

VLDL

Answer

Chylomicron

Answer

Lp (a)

Question 7

Which of the following is a neutral amino acid?

Accepted Answer

Glycine

Answer

Aspartate

Answer

Arginine

Answer

Histidine

Question 8

What is the complete classic triad of findings that defines Young's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis

Answer

Oligospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis

Answer

Azoospermia, asthma, and chronic rhinitis

Answer

Azoospermia, chronic bronchitis, and nasal polyps

Question 9

What is the sequence of events in acute inflammation?

Accepted Answer

Transient vasoconstriction - Vasodilatation - Increased permeability - Stasis

Answer

Transient vasoconstriction - Stasis - Vasodilatation - Increased permeability

Answer

Transient vasoconstriction - Vasodilatation - Stasis - Increased permeability

Answer

Vasodilatation - Stasis - Transient vasoconstriction - Increased permeability

Question 10

In which of the following conditions is protein catabolism MOST increased?

Accepted Answer

Burns

Answer

Surgery

Answer

Starvation

Answer

Fever

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Surgery