NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which anesthetic agent is known for providing smooth induction?

Isoflurane. ***Isoflurane*** - **Isoflurane** is frequently chosen for its capacity to induce a **smooth and rapid loss of consciousness**, primarily due to its low blood solubility which facilitates quick changes in anesthetic depth. - Its **minimal irritation** to the respiratory tract and **stable cardiovascular profile** during induction contribute to a smoother process for the patient. *Sevoflurane* - While sevoflurane also offers a **smooth and rapid induction** due to its low solubility, it is sometimes associated with a higher incidence of **airway irritation** (e.g., coughing) compared to isoflurane, especially in children. - It is known for its **pleasant odor**, making it a good choice for mask induction in pediatric patients. *Halothane* - **Halothane** provides a relatively smooth induction but has a higher risk of **hepatotoxicity** and cardiac arrhythmias, which have led to its decreased use. - Its higher blood solubility means a **slower onset and offset** compared to modern volatile agents like isoflurane. *Enflurane* - **Enflurane** can cause **CNS excitation** at deeper levels of anesthesia, potentially leading to seizures, making its induction less smooth and predictable. - It also has a greater potential to cause **myocardial depression** and arrhythmias than isoflurane.

Q: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?

Exophthalmos. ***Exophthalmos*** - A stellate ganglion block paralyses the **sympathetic nervous system** to the head and neck. - **Exophthalmos** (bulging of the eye) is a sign of sympathetic **hyperactivity**, not blockade. *Miosis* - **Miosis** (pupil constriction) is a classic sign of sympathetic blockade. - The **dilator pupillae muscle** is paralyzed, leading to unopposed parasympathetic action. *Nasal congestion* - **Nasal congestion** is a common sign due to the **vasodilation** of nasal blood vessels from sympathetic blockade. - Sympathetic nerves normally cause **vasoconstriction** in the nasal mucosa. *Conjunctival redness* - **Conjunctival redness** occurs due to **vasodilation** of conjunctival blood vessels, a direct effect of sympathetic blockade. - This is part of the **Horner's syndrome** presentation.

Q: Which type of leprosy does not involve nerve damage?

Indeterminate leprosy. ***Indeterminate leprosy*** - This is the earliest form of leprosy and often presents with only a **single skin lesion** and no demonstrable nerve damage. - Due to the minimal immune response, it can be difficult to classify and may progress to other forms if left untreated. *Tuberculoid leprosy* - Characterized by a **strong cell-mediated immune response** to *Mycobacterium leprae*, leading to significant nerve involvement [1]. - Patients typically present with well-demarcated, **hypopigmented patches** with definite **sensory loss** due to nerve damage [1]. *Borderline tuberculoid leprosy* - This form sits between tuberculoid and borderline lepromatous leprosy, showing features of both, including **nerve involvement** [2]. - It presents with a few to several skin lesions that are usually smaller and less clearly defined than tuberculoid lesions, often with **palpable nerves** and mild sensory loss [2]. *Lepromatous leprosy* - Characterized by a **weak or absent cell-mediated immune response**, leading to widespread bacterial proliferation and extensive nerve damage, often symmetrical [1]. - Patients show numerous, poorly defined skin lesions, nodules, and severe nerve involvement, which can result in significant **deformities** [2].

Q: Match stick test is positive in ?

Leprosy. ***Leprosy*** - The **matchstick test** is a simple neurological examination used to detect **nerve damage** in leprosy, specifically **sensory loss** [1]. - A positive test indicates the patient cannot perceive the touch or pain from a matchstick, commonly due to damage to superficial nerves caused by *Mycobacterium leprae* [1]. *Rhinophyma* - This condition is characterized by **sebaceous gland hypertrophy** and **fibrosis** of the nose, often associated with rosacea. - It does not involve nerve damage or sensory loss that would be assessed by a matchstick test. *Rhinoscleroma* - Rhinoscleroma is a **chronic granulomatous bacterial infection** of the upper respiratory tract. - While it causes significant tissue destruction and structural changes, it is not primarily associated with the sensory neuropathies that the matchstick test evaluates. *P. vesticolor* - *Pityriasis versicolor* is a **superficial fungal infection** of the skin, causing discolored patches. - This condition is a dermatological issue and does not involve nerve damage or sensory deficits, making the matchstick test irrelevant.

Q: Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?

Septate uterus. ***Septate uterus*** - A septate uterus is the most common congenital uterine anomaly, characterized by a **fibrous or muscular septum** dividing the uterine cavity. - This anomaly results from incomplete resorption of the **müllerian ducts** during development. *Bicornuate uterus* - A bicornuate uterus involves **two uterine horns** that are partially or completely separate, leading to a heart-shaped uterus. - While relatively common, it is **less prevalent** than the septate uterus. *Unicornuate uterus* - A unicornuate uterus is an anomaly where only **one side of the müllerian duct develops**, resulting in a uterus with only one horn and one fallopian tube. - This is a **rare anomaly** compared to septate and bicornuate uteri. *Arcuate uterus* - An arcuate uterus is considered a **mild variant of a normal uterus**, with a slight indentation in the fundus. - It often has **no clinical significance** and is less severe than other anomalies.

Q: What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester?

BPD. ***BPD (Biparietal Diameter)*** - **Biparietal diameter (BPD)** is considered the **best single parameter** among the given options for estimating fetal age in the third trimester, though all parameters become less accurate with advancing gestation. - In the third trimester, BPD accuracy is approximately **±3-4 weeks**, which is why **first trimester dating (CRL) should always be used when available** as it is most accurate (±5-7 days). - BPD is measured at the level of the thalami and cavum septum pellucidum, from outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull. - **Note**: Multiple biometric parameters used together improve accuracy more than any single measurement in late pregnancy. *Femur length* - **Femur length (FL)** is highly accurate in the **second trimester** but becomes less reliable in the third trimester due to biological variation. - It can be affected by **skeletal dysplasias** and genetic factors, leading to inaccurate age estimation. - FL is better used for assessing proportionate growth rather than dating in late pregnancy. *Abdominal circumference* - **Abdominal circumference (AC)** is primarily used for assessing **fetal growth and estimating fetal weight**, not for gestational age determination. - It is highly variable and influenced by fetal nutritional status, growth restriction, or macrosomia, making it unreliable for dating. - AC is the **most sensitive parameter for detecting growth abnormalities** (IUGR or LGA). *Intraocular distance* - **Intraocular distance (IOD)** is not a standard biometric parameter for routine gestational age estimation. - It has limited clinical utility and is occasionally used for detecting specific **fetal anomalies** (hypertelorism/hypotelorism) rather than dating. - Standard biometric parameters (BPD, HC, AC, FL) are always preferred for gestational age assessment.

Q: In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?

Isthmus. ***Isthmus*** - The **isthmus** is the narrowest and most muscular part of the fallopian tube. Due to its limited ability to stretch, an ectopic pregnancy here is highly prone to rupture **earlier** than in other segments (typically 6-8 weeks). - The **isthmic portion's** small lumen and thick muscular wall make rupture a rapid and common complication, often before significant fetal growth, giving it the **highest chance of rupture** when an ectopic pregnancy implants there. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately 70%) due to its wider lumen and being the usual site of fertilization. - However, rupture in the ampulla tends to occur **later** than in the isthmus (8-12 weeks) as it can accommodate the growing embryo for a longer period due to its greater distensibility. - While more ectopic pregnancies occur here in absolute numbers, each individual ampullary pregnancy has a **lower chance of rupture** compared to isthmic pregnancies. *Interstitial* - The **interstitial** (or cornual) part is the segment within the uterine wall, making it a rare site for ectopic pregnancies (2-4%). - Ruptures in the interstitial portion occur **latest** (12-16 weeks) but are often the most dangerous, leading to severe hemorrhage due to the surrounding vascularity of the uterus and proximity to uterine and ovarian arteries. *Fimbrial* - The **fimbrial** end is the portion closest to the ovary and is exceedingly rare for ectopic implantation. - Implantation near the fimbriae usually leads to an **"abdominal pregnancy"** if the embryo is extruded, or could result in early "tubal abortion" rather than a true rupture.

Q: What is the most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis?

Infertility. ***Infertility*** - **Infertility** is the most common presenting symptom of **tuberculosis (TB) endometritis**, particularly secondary infertility. - The infection leads to inflammation and scarring of the endometrium and fallopian tubes, impairing implantation and ovum transport. *Abdominal pain* - While **abdominal pain** can occur in TB endometritis, it is typically a less frequent or prominent presenting symptom compared to infertility. - Pain often arises from pelvic inflammation or adhesions but is not the cardinal complaint that prompts diagnosis. *Amenorrhoea* - **Amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) can be a symptom, especially in advanced cases where there is significant destruction of the endometrium. - It is, however, less common than infertility as the initial presenting symptom. *Vaginal discharge* - **Vaginal discharge** is an uncommon symptom of TB endometritis. - When present, it is often non-specific and not characteristic enough to suggest TB as the underlying cause.

Q: Which personality disorder is characterized by suspiciousness?

Paranoid personality disorder. ***Paranoid personality disorder*** - This disorder is fundamentally characterized by a pervasive **distrust and suspiciousness** of others' motives, interpreting them as malevolent. - Individuals with this disorder often believe others are exploiting, harming, or deceiving them, even without sufficient evidence. *Schizoid personality disorder* - Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings. - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder typically show no interest in social interactions and exhibit **emotional coldness**, not suspiciousness. *Anankastic personality disorder* - This is another name for **Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)**, which is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control. - Individuals with OCPD are concerned with rules, details, and schedules, often at the expense of flexibility and efficiency, and do not typically exhibit suspiciousness. *Schizotypal personality disorder* - Characterized by a pattern of acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentricities of behavior. - While they may exhibit odd beliefs or magical thinking, their primary feature is not suspiciousness but rather unique patterns of thought, perception, and behavior.

Question 1

Which anesthetic agent is known for providing smooth induction?

Accepted Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Enflurane

Answer

Sevoflurane

Question 2

Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?

Accepted Answer

Exophthalmos

Answer

Miosis

Answer

Conjunctival redness

Answer

Nasal congestion

Question 3

Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?

Accepted Answer

Helium ion

Answer

Hydrogen ion

Answer

Neutron

Answer

Helium atom

Question 4

Which type of leprosy does not involve nerve damage?

Accepted Answer

Indeterminate leprosy

Answer

Borderline tuberculoid leprosy

Answer

Tuberculoid leprosy

Answer

Lepromatous leprosy

Question 5

Match stick test is positive in ?

Accepted Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Rhinophyma

Answer

P. versicolor

Answer

Rhinoscleroma

Question 6

Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?

Accepted Answer

Septate uterus

Answer

Bicornuate uterus

Answer

Unicornuate uterus

Answer

Arcuate uterus

Question 7

What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester?

Accepted Answer

BPD

Answer

Abdominal circumference

Answer

Femur length

Answer

Intraocular distance

Question 8

In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Interstitial

Answer

Fimbrial

Answer

Ampulla

Question 9

What is the most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis?

Accepted Answer

Infertility

Answer

Amenorrhoea

Answer

Vaginal discharge

Answer

Abdominal pain

Question 10

Which personality disorder is characterized by suspiciousness?

Accepted Answer

Paranoid personality disorder

Answer

Schizoid personality disorder

Answer

Anankastic personality disorder

Answer

Schizotypal personality disorder

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Psychiatry