NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at -

Immediate post-partum. ***Immediate post-partum*** - The **immediate postpartum period** (first 24 hours after birth) is considered the most critical time for maternal mortality, accounting for approximately **45-50% of all maternal deaths**. - Primary causes include **postpartum hemorrhage** (leading cause, responsible for ~25% of maternal deaths globally), **eclampsia**, and **amniotic fluid embolism**. - This phase involves significant physiological changes and potential complications arising directly from the birthing process, with risks being highest in the first few hours after delivery. *Last trimester* - While the **last trimester** carries risks such as pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, and thrombosis, the overall mortality rate is lower compared to the immediate postpartum period. - Many of the complications arising in late pregnancy are either manageable with proper antenatal care or culminate in critical events during or just after delivery. *During labor* - **Maternal mortality during labor** can occur due to complications like obstructed labor, uterine rupture, or severe pre-eclampsia. However, modern obstetric care with active management aims to identify and manage these issues promptly. - Many *intrapartum* complications often lead to adverse outcomes that extend into the immediate postpartum phase, where the majority of deaths are recorded. *Delayed post-partum* - The **delayed postpartum period** (from 24 hours up to 6 weeks after birth) still carries risks such as infections (puerperal sepsis), venous thromboembolism, and peripartum cardiomyopathy, but the incidence of acute, life-threatening events is significantly lower than in the immediate postpartum period. - Mortalities during this period are often related to complications that develop or worsen over time, rather than acute events directly from birth.

Q: Which of the following methods is used for prenatal diagnosis of Down Syndrome?

Karyotyping for chromosomal analysis. ***Karyotyping for chromosomal analysis*** - **Karyotyping** is the gold standard definitive diagnostic method for Down syndrome (trisomy 21) as it directly visualizes and counts all chromosomes, identifying the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. - This cytogenetic method provides a clear genetic diagnosis with 100% accuracy, confirming the chromosomal abnormality responsible for Down syndrome. - Karyotyping can be performed on cells obtained via amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS). *Triple test for biomarker screening* - The **triple test** measures biochemical markers (alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated estriol, and hCG) to assess the risk of Down syndrome, but it is a **screening tool**, not a diagnostic method. - It has a detection rate of approximately 69% with a 5% false-positive rate. - Abnormal results require confirmatory diagnostic testing with karyotyping or other chromosomal analysis methods. *Fetal ultrasonography for physical feature assessment* - Fetal ultrasonography can detect **soft markers** such as increased nuchal translucency, absent/hypoplastic nasal bone, echogenic intracardiac focus, or structural anomalies that raise suspicion for Down syndrome. - However, ultrasound findings are **not diagnostic** on their own and have limited sensitivity and specificity. - Positive findings necessitate genetic testing like karyotyping for definitive diagnosis. *Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) for cell-free DNA analysis* - **NIPT** analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in maternal blood and has high sensitivity (>99%) and specificity (>99%) for detecting trisomy 21. - Despite its excellent screening performance, NIPT is still classified as a **screening test**, not a diagnostic test. - Positive NIPT results require confirmation with diagnostic testing (karyotyping) before making clinical decisions regarding the pregnancy.

Q: What is the recommended timing for the insertion of a Copper T intrauterine device?

Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle. ***Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle*** - Inserting the **Copper T IUD** during this phase ensures the woman is not pregnant, as ovulation typically occurs later in the cycle. - The **cervix is slightly dilated** during menstruation, making insertion easier and less uncomfortable. - This is the **recommended timing** as per standard guidelines for IUD insertion. *3 days after periods are over* - While this timing might seem appropriate, it doesn't align with the optimal window for ensuring **non-pregnancy** and ease of insertion. - The **cervix may have already closed** significantly, making insertion potentially more difficult than during menstruation. *During active pelvic infection* - Insertion of an IUD during an **active pelvic infection** is **absolutely contraindicated** due to the risk of exacerbating the infection and leading to more serious complications like **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**. - The presence of infection increases the likelihood of bacteria being carried into the **uterine cavity**, potentially causing severe consequences. *Just after menstruation* - While close to the ideal window, this timing is less specific than "within 10 days" and may miss the optimal cervical conditions. - The benefits of a slightly dilated cervix during the early menstrual phase would be maximized with the more precise timing of within 10 days of cycle start.

Q: Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

10-20 times. ***10-20 times*** - Colposcopes typically provide magnification in the range of **10 to 20 times** to allow for detailed examination of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. - This magnification level is sufficient to identify changes in the **epithelium**, such as those associated with dysplasia or cancer. *1-2 times* - A magnification of 1-2 times is very low and would not be adequate for **detailed visualization** of the cervix and its microscopic changes. - This range is more akin to **naked eye** observation or a simple magnifying glass, insufficient for colposcopic purposes. *5-6 times* - While 5-6 times magnification offers some detail, it is generally **insufficient** for the precise identification of subtle epithelial changes or abnormal vascular patterns characteristic of dysplasia. - Most colposcopes are designed to provide higher magnification to enhance diagnostic accuracy. *15-25 times* - While some advanced colposcopes might offer magnification up to 25 times, the standard and most commonly used range is **10-20 times**. - Magnification significantly beyond 20 times can sometimes lead to a **smaller field of view** and increased difficulty in focusing, making it less practical for routine examination.

Q: What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?

200mg. ***200mg*** - The standard dose of **mifepristone** for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is **200mg orally**. - This dose is typically followed 24-48 hours later by a **prostaglandin analog** (e.g., misoprostol) to complete the termination process. *10mg* - This dose is significantly lower than the recommended therapeutic dose for medical abortion. - Such a low dose would likely be **ineffective** in achieving termination. *20 mg* - This dose is also much lower than the standard therapeutic recommendation. - It would not adequately block progesterone receptors to initiate the termination process effectively. *100mg* - While closer to the standard dose, 100mg is still considered **sub-therapeutic** for many individuals undergoing medical abortion. - A lower efficacy rate would be expected compared to the 200mg dose.

Q: Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -

Abnormal vaginal bleeding. ***Abnormal vaginal bleeding*** - **Abnormal vaginal bleeding** is the most frequent presenting symptom of cervical cancer, often manifesting as **postcoital bleeding**, intermenstrual bleeding, or heavier, longer menstrual periods. - This symptom arises as the tumor on the cervix ulcerates and bleeds due to its friable nature and rich vascularization. *Pelvic pain* - **Pelvic pain** is typically a symptom of more **advanced cervical cancer**, indicating tumor invasion into surrounding tissues or nerves. - It is not usually an early or the most common presenting symptom, unlike abnormal bleeding. *Pain during intercourse* - **Pain during intercourse (dyspareunia)** can be a symptom of cervical cancer, particularly with larger lesions or those causing inflammation. - However, it is less common than abnormal bleeding and often occurs concurrently with or after the onset of bleeding symptoms. *Unusual vaginal discharge* - An **unusual vaginal discharge**, which may be watery, foul-smelling, or blood-tinged, can occur with cervical cancer. - While a common symptom, it is generally considered less frequent than abnormal vaginal bleeding as the primary presenting complaint.

Q: In Stein-Leventhal syndrome, which hormone is raised?

LH. ***LH*** - In **Stein-Leventhal syndrome** (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome, PCOS), there is an elevated **LH (Luteinizing Hormone)** level. - This high LH-to-FSH ratio contributes to increased **androgen production** by the ovarian theca cells, leading to symptoms like hirsutism and anovulation. *FSH* - **FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone)** levels are typically normal or even low in PCOS, contributing to the elevated LH:FSH ratio. - Low FSH levels impair proper follicle maturation, leading to **anovulation** and the characteristic polycystic appearance of the ovaries. *GnRH* - **GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone)** secretion can be altered in PCOS, often showing increased pulse frequency, which preferentially stimulates LH release over FSH. - However, **GnRH levels themselves are not directly measured** as "raised" in the clinical diagnostic criteria for PCOS. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** levels are often low or absent in PCOS, particularly in the luteal phase, due to **anovulation**. - The lack of regular ovulation means no corpus luteum forms, which is responsible for progesterone production after ovulation.

Q: What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?

Within 3 weeks. **Correct Answer: Within 3 weeks** - The highest risk of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** after IUD insertion is typically observed in the **first 20 days (approximately 3 weeks)** post-insertion. - This elevated risk is mainly due to the potential introduction of **bacteria** from the vagina or cervix into the uterus during the insertion process. - Studies show that the risk of PID is **6-fold higher** in the first 20 days compared to later periods. *Incorrect: Within 5 weeks* - While PID can occur after 3 weeks, the **highest incidence** is concentrated in the earlier period (first 3 weeks). - The risk significantly **decreases after the initial weeks**, suggesting that the critical window for bacterial ascent is shorter. *Incorrect: Within 7 weeks* - By 7 weeks, the risk of developing PID attributable to IUD insertion becomes **negligible** compared to the general population. - Most infections that manifest beyond the initial month are usually due to **newly acquired sexually transmitted infections (STIs)**, not the insertion itself. *Incorrect: Within 14 weeks* - At 14 weeks, any PID development is generally **not linked to the IUD insertion event** but rather to other risk factors like new sexual partners or untreated STIs. - The immediate trauma and potential bacterial contamination from the insertion procedure have **long ceased to be the primary cause** of infection.

Q: Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?

Vaginal candidiasis. ***Vaginal candidiasis*** - **Vaginal candidiasis**, commonly known as a yeast infection, is the **most frequent genital infection** during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that alter the vaginal microenvironment. - Pregnancy increases susceptibility through **elevated estrogen levels**, **increased vaginal glycogen**, and **altered vaginal pH**. - While generally not harmful to the fetus, it can cause significant maternal discomfort with symptoms like **itching**, burning, and a **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge**. *Gonorrhea* - Gonorrhea is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** that, although possible, is not the most common genital infection in pregnancy. - It carries a risk of serious complications for both mother and infant, including **preterm birth**, **chorioamnionitis**, and **neonatal conjunctivitis** (ophthalmia neonatorum). *Chlamydia* - Chlamydia is another **STI** that can occur during pregnancy but is not as common as candidiasis. - Untreated chlamydia can lead to **preterm rupture of membranes**, **preterm labor**, and **postpartum endometritis** in the mother, and **conjunctivitis** or **pneumonia** in the newborn. *Bacterial vaginosis* - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an **imbalance in normal vaginal flora**, with overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. - While BV is the most common vaginal infection in **non-pregnant women**, vaginal candidiasis is more frequently encountered during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. - BV in pregnancy is associated with increased risk of **preterm birth**, **preterm rupture of membranes**, and **postpartum endometritis**, making screening and treatment important.

Q: A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Stage 3C. ***Stage 3C*** - **Bilateral ovarian carcinoma** with **capsule involvement**, **ascites**, and especially **paraaortic lymph node metastases** are defining features of Stage IIIC ovarian cancer. - Involvement of **retroperitoneal lymph nodes**, including paraaortic nodes, automatically upstages the disease to Stage III, irrespective of other abdominal spread. *Stage 1C* - This stage refers to ovarian cancer confined to **one or both ovaries**, with evidence of rupture, capsule involvement, or malignant cells in ascites/peritoneal washings, but **without lymph node involvement**. - The presence of **paraaortic lymphadenopathy** in this patient immediately excludes Stage 1C. *Stage 2C* - Stage 2 ovarian cancer involves one or both ovaries with **pelvic extension** beyond the ovaries, but still **without lymph node involvement**. - The patient's involvement of **paraaortic lymph nodes** goes beyond pelvic extension and therefore excludes Stage 2C. *Stage 4C* - Stage 4 ovarian carcinoma involves **distant metastasis** beyond the peritoneal cavity or distant lymph nodes (e.g., pleural effusion with positive cytology, parenchymal liver/spleen metastasis). - While paraaortic lymphadenopathy indicates advanced disease, it falls within the criteria for Stage 3 due to its location, not Stage 4.

Question 1

Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at -

Accepted Answer

Immediate post-partum

Answer

Last trimester

Answer

During labor

Answer

Delayed post-partum

Question 2

Which of the following methods is used for prenatal diagnosis of Down Syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Karyotyping for chromosomal analysis

Answer

Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) for cell-free DNA analysis

Answer

Triple test for biomarker screening

Answer

Fetal ultrasonography for physical feature assessment

Question 3

What is the recommended timing for the insertion of a Copper T intrauterine device?

Accepted Answer

Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle

Answer

3 days after periods are over

Answer

Just after menstruation

Answer

During active pelvic infection

Question 4

Magnification obtained by colposcopy is?

Accepted Answer

10-20 times

Answer

1-2 times

Answer

5-6 times

Answer

15-25 times

Question 5

What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?

Accepted Answer

200mg

Answer

10mg

Answer

20mg

Answer

100mg

Question 6

Most common presentation of cervical cancer is -

Accepted Answer

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

Answer

Pelvic pain

Answer

Pain during intercourse

Answer

Unusual vaginal discharge

Question 7

In Stein-Leventhal syndrome, which hormone is raised?

Accepted Answer

LH

Answer

FSH

Answer

GnRH

Answer

Progesterone

Question 8

What is the timing for the highest risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) after the insertion of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?

Accepted Answer

Within 3 weeks

Answer

Within 5 weeks

Answer

Within 7 weeks

Answer

Within 14 weeks

Question 9

Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Vaginal candidiasis

Answer

Gonorrhea

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Bacterial vaginosis

Question 10

A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Stage 3C

Answer

Stage 1C

Answer

Stage 2C

Answer

Stage 4C

NEET-PG 2013 — Obstetrics and Gynecology