NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Protection against malaria. Protection against malaria - Individuals with thalassemia, particularly thalassemia trait, have some degree of protection against severe forms of malaria, specifically Plasmodium falciparum [1]. - The altered red blood cell structure and reduced hemoglobin content in thalassemia make the red blood cells less hospitable for the parasites, hindering their replication and survival [1]. Protection against filaria - Filaria is caused by parasitic worms (nematodes) transmitted by mosquitoes, leading to lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis) or onchocerciasis (river blindness). - Thalassemia's primary impact is on red blood cell health and oxygen transport, offering no known protective effect against nematode infections or their associated pathology. Protection against kala-azar - Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is caused by Leishmania parasites transmitted by sandflies, primarily affecting the reticuloendothelial system (spleen, liver, bone marrow). - There is no established scientific evidence indicating that thalassemia provides protection against Leishmania infections or their clinical manifestations. Protection against leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by Leptospira bacteria, typically acquired through contact with contaminated water or animal urine. - Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder; its physiological effects are unrelated to the mechanisms of infection or immunity against bacterial pathogens like Leptospira.

Q: Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?

Reticulocytosis. Reticulocytosis - Reticulocytosis is one of the earliest signs of a positive response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, occurring within 5-10 days. - It signifies that the bone marrow is effectively producing new red blood cells after iron supplementation. Restoration of enzymes - While iron is a crucial component of many enzymes (e.g., catalase, cytochrome oxidase), its restoration takes time and is not the primary immediate indicator of therapeutic response. - Clinical improvement and other hematological parameters precede the full restoration of enzyme function. Increase in hemoglobin - An increase in hemoglobin is a definitive sign of successful treatment, but it occurs later than reticulocytosis, typically visible after several weeks to months of therapy. - Hemoglobin levels rise as the new, iron-sufficient red blood cells fully mature and replace the older, iron-deficient ones. Increase in iron binding capacity - In iron deficiency anemia, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is typically increased due to more transferrin being available to bind iron [1]. - Successful iron therapy would lead to a decrease in TIBC as transferrin sites become saturated with iron, not an increase.

Q: Which of the following statements about obesity is FALSE?

There is no genetic predisposition to obesity.. There is no genetic predisposition to obesity. - This statement is false because genetic factors play a significant role in an individual's susceptibility to obesity, influencing metabolism, appetite, and fat storage [1]. - While environment and lifestyle are crucial, polygenic influences and certain single-gene disorders can heavily predispose individuals to weight gain [1]. *Smoking is associated with weight loss* - Smoking can lead to appetite suppression and an increased metabolic rate, which may result in weight loss or lower body weight compared to non-smokers. - However, this is not a healthy or recommended method for weight control due to the numerous severe health risks associated with smoking. *Obesity affects only females.* - This statement is false; obesity affects both males and females across all age groups and demographics [2]. - Although there can be differences in fat distribution and associated health risks between sexes, obesity is a global health issue impacting everyone [2]. *The prevalence of obesity decreases with age.* - This statement is generally false; the prevalence of obesity tends to increase with age through middle adulthood before possibly leveling off or slightly declining in older age. - Factors like decreased physical activity, changes in metabolism, and chronic disease accumulation contribute to weight gain later in life [3].

Q: Which of the following statements about hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is false?

Parathormone level is increased. ***Parathormone level is increased*** - In **sarcoidosis-associated hypercalcemia**, the parathormone (PTH) level is typically **low or suppressed**. [1] - This is because the hypercalcemia is due to **extra-renal 1-$\alpha$ hydroxylation** of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) by macrophages in granulomas, not primary hyperparathyroidism. [1] *PTHrP level is increased* - This statement is **false** for sarcoidosis. Elevated **parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)** is a common cause of hypercalcemia in **malignancy**, particularly squamous cell carcinomas, but not in sarcoidosis. - Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is **PTH-independent** and not mediated by PTHrP. [1] *Oral steroids are useful* - This statement is **true**. **Corticosteroids** (like oral prednisone) are effective in treating hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis. - They work by **inhibiting the activity of 1-$\alpha$ hydroxylase** in alveolar macrophages and reducing intestinal calcium absorption. *Calcitriol level is increased* - This statement is **true**. In sarcoidosis, activated **macrophages within granulomas** aberrantly express **1-$\alpha$ hydroxylase**. [1] - This leads to the **extra-renal synthesis of calcitriol** (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D), which increases intestinal calcium absorption and bone resorption, causing hypercalcemia. [1]

Q: What is the complete classic triad of findings that defines Young's syndrome?

Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis. ***Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis*** - Young's syndrome is characterized by the triad of **azoospermia** (due to obstructive epididymal dysfunction), **bronchiectasis**, and **chronic sinusitis** [1]. - This syndrome primarily affects **middle-aged men** and is often mistaken for cystic fibrosis due to similar respiratory symptoms. *Azoospermia, asthma, and chronic rhinitis* - This option incorrectly lists **asthma** and **chronic rhinitis** instead of bronchiectasis and chronic sinusitis. - While respiratory symptoms are part of Young's syndrome, specifically **bronchiectasis** and **sinusitis** are key [1]. *Oligospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis* - This option is incorrect because Young's syndrome is defined by **azoospermia** (complete absence of sperm), not just **oligospermia** (low sperm count). - The obstructive nature of the epididymal dysfunction in Young's syndrome leads to a complete lack of sperm. *Azoospermia, chronic bronchitis, and nasal polyps* - This option incorrectly identifies **chronic bronchitis** and **nasal polyps** as part of the classic triad. - The correct respiratory components are **bronchiectasis** and **chronic sinusitis**, which signify persistent inflammation and structural lung changes rather than simply bronchitis.

Q: Most common cause of death in SLE in children

Anemia and infections. ***Anemia and infections*** - **Infections** are a leading cause of death in pediatric SLE patients, often due to immunosuppression from the disease itself or its treatment. Although pediatric Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is not a primary immune deficiency, the susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria and recurrent infections seen in primary B- and T-lymphocyte deficiencies mirrors the infection risks managed in these patients [1]. - **Anemia** can contribute to overall morbidity and mortality, although it is less directly a cause of death than severe infections or organ failure. *Lupus nephritis* - While **lupus nephritis** is a common and severe manifestation of SLE in children and a major cause of morbidity, particularly long-term kidney failure, it is not the most frequent immediate cause of death. - Advancements in treatment for nephritis have improved prognosis, shifting the leading cause of mortality to other factors. *Lupus cerebritis* - **Lupus cerebritis** (neuropsychiatric SLE) can be life-threatening, causing seizures, stroke, or psychosis, but it is less common as the primary cause of death compared to infections. - Its presence usually indicates severe disease requiring intensive treatment, but not the most common direct cause of death. *Libman sacks endocarditis* - **Libman-Sacks endocarditis** involves sterile vegetations on heart valves and is a known complication of SLE, but it rarely causes acute mortality in children. - It is more often associated with chronic complications like valvular dysfunction or a source of emboli rather than being the most common cause of death.

Q: Which of the following statements about HIV associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is incorrect?

HIVAN is associated with shrunken kidneys.. ***Shrunken kidneys*** - In HIV-associated nephropathy, kidneys typically appear **enlarged** due to hyperplasia of podocytes and other glomerular changes. - **Shrunken kidneys** are not a characteristic feature, making this statement incorrect. *Develops when CD4<200* - HIV-associated nephropathy often arises when CD4 counts drop **below 200 cells/mm³**, indicating severe immunosuppression. - This is a common threshold for the occurrence of opportunistic infections and kidney issues in HIV patients. *15% cases show mesengial proliferation* - **Mesangial proliferation** can occur in about **15% to 30%** of cases of HIV-associated nephropathy, which aligns with the typical histological findings. - Incorrect assumptions might stem from misunderstanding the varying morphologies associated with HIV nephropathy. *Proteinuria* - **Proteinuria** is a common clinical feature of HIV-associated nephropathy, with the condition often presenting with significant protein loss in the urine. - The nephropathy especially results in **nephrotic syndrome**, characterized by high levels of proteinuria.

Q: Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

Post-operative atelectasis. ***Post-operative atelectasis*** - **Type 3 respiratory failure**, also known as **perioperative respiratory failure**, is characterized by hypoxemia occurring typically after surgery. - **Atelectasis**, the collapse of lung tissue, is a common cause of hypoxemia in the post-operative period due to shallow breathing, pain, and anesthesia affecting lung volumes. *Kyphoscoliosis* - This condition leads to a **restrictive lung disease** due to chest wall deformity, causing chronic respiratory failure. [1] - It more typically results in **Type 2 respiratory failure** (hypercapnic) due to impaired ventilation over time. [1] *Flail chest* - Flail chest is a severe chest wall injury causing paradoxical movement, leading to **acute respiratory failure**. - It is often associated with **Type 1 (hypoxemic)** or **Type 2 (hypercapnic)** respiratory failure due to trauma-induced lung injury and impaired mechanics. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - This is a progressive interstitial lung disease causing **restrictive ventilatory defect** and impaired gas exchange. - It leads to chronic **Type 1 respiratory failure** (hypoxemic) as the lung tissue becomes stiff and scarred.

Q: What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?

25-29.9. ***25-29.9*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** between 25 and 29.9 kg/m² is classified as **overweight** [1] or **preobesity**. - This range indicates an increased risk of developing various health problems associated with higher body weight [1]. *18.5-24.9* - This BMI range is considered **normal weight**, which is generally ideal for health [1]. - Individuals within this range typically have the lowest risk of weight-related health complications [1]. *30-34.9* - A BMI in this range is classified as **obesity class I** [1]. - This category indicates a significantly increased risk of developing co-morbidities such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease [1]. *35-39.9* - This BMI range represents **obesity class II** (severe obesity) [1]. - Individuals in this category face a high risk of serious health issues and often require more aggressive intervention strategies [1].

Q: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?

Normal BP. ***Normal BP*** - In **mild dehydration**, the body's compensatory mechanisms, such as increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, typically manage to maintain a **normal blood pressure**. [1] - A significant drop in **blood pressure** (hypotension) is usually indicative of **moderate to severe dehydration**, where these compensatory mechanisms begin to fail. [2] *Thirst* - **Thirst** is one of the **earliest and most reliable** indicators of dehydration, as the body signals a need for fluid intake. [3] - It arises in response to increased plasma osmolality and decreased blood volume, both occurring even in **mild dehydration**. [3] *Restlessness* - **Restlessness** can be an early sign of discomfort and altered mental status associated with **mild dehydration**, particularly in infants and young children. - As the body struggles to maintain fluid balance, individuals may experience irritability and general unease. *Dry tongue* - A **dry tongue** and **dry sticky mucous membranes** are common signs of mild to moderate dehydration. - This symptom results from reduced salivary production due to decreased fluid volume in the body.

Question 1

Thalassemia gives protection against ?

Accepted Answer

Protection against malaria

Answer

Protection against filaria

Answer

Protection against kala-azar

Answer

Protection against leptospirosis

Question 2

Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?

Accepted Answer

Reticulocytosis

Answer

Increase in hemoglobin

Answer

Restoration of enzymes

Answer

Increase in iron binding capacity

Question 3

Which of the following statements about obesity is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

There is no genetic predisposition to obesity.

Answer

Smoking is associated with weight loss

Answer

Obesity affects only females.

Answer

The prevalence of obesity decreases with age.

Question 4

Which of the following statements about hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is false?

Accepted Answer

Parathormone level is increased

Answer

PTHrP level is increased

Answer

Oral steroids are useful

Answer

Calcitriol level is increased

Question 5

What is the complete classic triad of findings that defines Young's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Azoospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis

Answer

Oligospermia, bronchiectasis, and chronic sinusitis

Answer

Azoospermia, asthma, and chronic rhinitis

Answer

Azoospermia, chronic bronchitis, and nasal polyps

Question 6

Most common cause of death in SLE in children

Accepted Answer

Anemia and infections

Answer

Libman sacks endocarditis

Answer

Lupus cerebritis

Answer

Lupus nephritis

Question 7

Which of the following statements about HIV associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

HIVAN is associated with shrunken kidneys.

Answer

HIVAN is characterized by proteinuria.

Answer

HIVAN typically develops when CD4 count is less than 200.

Answer

About 15% of cases show mesangial proliferation.

Question 8

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to ?

Accepted Answer

Post-operative atelectasis

Answer

Kyphoscoliosis

Answer

Flail chest

Answer

Pulmonary fibrosis

Question 9

What is the BMI range that defines preobesity?

Accepted Answer

25-29.9

Answer

18.5-24.9

Answer

30-34.9

Answer

35-39.9

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?

Accepted Answer

Normal BP

Answer

Thirst

Answer

Restlessness

Answer

Dry tongue

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine