Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?
Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
Which of the following is not a typical feature of haemolytic uremic syndrome?
Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
Primary hypercholesterolemia is:
Most common site for hydatid cyst
Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
- A. Hemolysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- D. Aplastic anemia
Explanation: ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
- A. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
- B. Autosomal recessive inheritance (Correct Answer)
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. Hamartomatous polyp
Explanation: ***High risk of malignancy*** - Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is primarily associated with **benign hamartomatous polyps**, not a **high risk of malignancy**, which distinguishes it from other syndromes. - Although patients may develop cancers [1], the syndrome itself does not inherently denote a high malignancy risk like other syndromes such as familial adenomatous polyposis. *Autosomal dominant* - This syndrome is indeed **autosomal dominant**, caused by mutations in the STK11 gene. - Families with this condition typically show **vertical transmission**, characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance. *Hamartomatous polyp* - Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop **hamartomatous polyps**, which are a hallmark feature of the condition [1]. - These polyps can occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are benign lesions rather than adenomatous type seen in other syndromes [1]. *Mucocutaneous pigmentation* - Mucocutaneous pigmentation, such as **freckling around the lips and buccal mucosa**, is a key clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. - This pigmentation usually appears in childhood and is often a distinguishing sign of the syndrome.
Question 33: What is the most appropriate initial management for paralysis resulting from organophosphorus poisoning?
- A. Supportive care, including respiratory support (Correct Answer)
- B. Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms
- C. Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase
- D. No specific antidote
Explanation: **Supportive care, including respiratory support** * **Paralysis** in organophosphorus poisoning (OPP) is often due to **nicotinic effects** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to respiratory muscle weakness and failure [2]. * **Respiratory support** through mechanical ventilation is crucial to maintain oxygenation and prevent complications while awaiting the effects of antidotal therapy [1], [2]. * *Atropine to counteract muscarinic symptoms* * **Atropine** primarily blocks **muscarinic receptors**, effectively treating symptoms like bradycardia, bronchorrhea, and miosis [2]. * It does **not reverse the nicotinic effects** responsible for muscle paralysis and respiratory failure. * *Oximes to reactivate acetylcholinesterase* * **Oximes (e.g., pralidoxime)** reactivate **acetylcholinesterase**, thereby addressing the underlying cause of acetylcholine accumulation [2]. * They are most effective if given **early** before irreversible aging of the enzyme occurs, but their effect on established paralysis can be limited without concurrent respiratory support [2]. * *No specific antidote* * This statement is incorrect; **atropine** and **oximes** are specific antidotes for organophosphorus poisoning [2]. * While these antidotes are vital, initial management prioritizing **airway and breathing support** is paramount due to the life-threatening respiratory paralysis [1].
Question 34: Response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by?
- A. Increase in hemoglobin
- B. Reticulocytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Restoration of enzymes
- D. Increase in iron binding capacity
Explanation: Reticulocytosis - Reticulocytosis is one of the earliest signs of a positive response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, occurring within 5-10 days. - It signifies that the bone marrow is effectively producing new red blood cells after iron supplementation. Restoration of enzymes - While iron is a crucial component of many enzymes (e.g., catalase, cytochrome oxidase), its restoration takes time and is not the primary immediate indicator of therapeutic response. - Clinical improvement and other hematological parameters precede the full restoration of enzyme function. Increase in hemoglobin - An increase in hemoglobin is a definitive sign of successful treatment, but it occurs later than reticulocytosis, typically visible after several weeks to months of therapy. - Hemoglobin levels rise as the new, iron-sufficient red blood cells fully mature and replace the older, iron-deficient ones. Increase in iron binding capacity - In iron deficiency anemia, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is typically increased due to more transferrin being available to bind iron [1]. - Successful iron therapy would lead to a decrease in TIBC as transferrin sites become saturated with iron, not an increase.
Question 35: What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
- A. Pancreas
- B. Duodenum (Correct Answer)
- C. Jejunum
- D. Gall bladder
Explanation: ***Duodenum*** - The **duodenum** is the most common site for gastrinomas, accounting for over **half of all cases**, particularly in sporadic gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - These tumors are often **small** and **multiple** in the duodenum, making them challenging to locate. *Pancreas* - Pancreatic gastrinomas are also common, representing approximately **25-40% of cases**, but are less frequent than duodenal gastrinomas. - Pancreatic gastrinomas tend to be **larger** and more amenable to surgical resection when compared to duodenal gastrinomas. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas found in the jejunum are **rare**, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. - The small intestine distal to the duodenum is an **uncommon site** for primary gastrinoma formation. *Gall bladder* - The **gallbladder** is not a typical location for gastrinoma development. - Gastrinomas are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from **gastrin-producing cells**, which are not found in the gallbladder.
Question 36: Which of the following is not a typical feature of haemolytic uremic syndrome?
- A. Splenomegaly (Correct Answer)
- B. Anemia
- C. Renal microthrombi
- D. Hyperkalemia
Explanation: ***Neuro psychiatric disturbances*** - Neuropsychiatric disturbances are not a direct feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which primarily affects renal and hematological systems. - HUS is characterized by a triad of **hemolytic anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **acute renal failure**, without specific neuropsychiatric manifestations [2]. *Anaemia* - **Hemolytic anemia** is a key feature of HUS due to red blood cell destruction [1], [2]. - Patients often exhibit signs of **fatigue and pallor**, distinguishing it from other renal syndromes [3]. *Renal microthrombi* - HUS is characterized by the formation of **microthrombi in renal vasculature**, leading to acute kidney injury [1]. - The presence of these microthrombi is fundamental to the pathology of HUS [1]. *Hyperkalemia* - Renal failure in HUS can lead to **hyperkalemia** due to decreased potassium excretion. - It is a common complication associated with the acute renal failure seen in HUS.
Question 37: Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
- A. Optic nerve glioma (Correct Answer)
- B. Meningioma
- C. Acoustic schwannoma
- D. Low grade astrocytoma
Explanation: ***Optic nerve glioma*** - **Optic nerve gliomas** are the most frequently encountered central nervous system tumors in patients with **Type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF1)**, occurring in about 15% of individuals. - They are typically low-grade **astrocytomas** and can cause vision loss and proptosis depending on their size and location. *Meningioma* - While more common in **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, meningiomas can occur in NF1, but are not the most common CNS tumor. - Meningiomas are tumors that arise from the **meninges**, the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. *Acoustic schwannoma* - **Bilateral acoustic schwannomas (vestibular schwannomas)** are the hallmark feature of **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, not NF1 [1]. - These tumors arise from the Schwann cells of the **vestibulocochlear nerve** and can cause hearing loss and balance issues [1]. *Low grade astrocytoma* - While optic nerve gliomas are a type of low-grade astrocytoma, this option is too general; **optic nerve glioma** is the specific and most common presentation in NF1. - Other forms of low-grade astrocytomas can occur in NF1 but are not as universally characteristic as optic nerve gliomas.
Question 38: Primary hypercholesterolemia is:
- A. Type I
- B. Type IIb
- C. Type IIa (Correct Answer)
- D. Type III
Explanation: ***Type Ha*** - **Primary hypercholesterolemia** specifically refers to **Familial Hypercholesterolemia**, which is classified as Type Ha due to a genetic defect affecting LDL receptor activity [1]. - It typically presents with **high cholesterol levels** and an increased risk of premature cardiovascular disease [1]. *Type I* - Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with **chylomicronemia**, leading to elevated triglycerides rather than cholesterol. - Symptoms include **pancreatitis** and eruptive xanthomas, not primarily high cholesterol levels. *Type III* - Type III hyperlipoproteinemia is known as **Dysbetalipoproteinemia**, associated with **increased IDL** and can cause elevated cholesterol, but is not classified as primary hypercholesterolemia. - It typically presents with **tuberous xanthomas** and is linked to **apolipoprotein E deficiency**. *Type IIb* - Type IIb hyperlipoproteinemia involves **elevation of LDL and VLDL**, but it is not classified as primary hypercholesterolemia; it is a mixed dyslipidemia. - This type usually features **increased cholesterol** and **triglycerides**, distinguishing it from the familial form classified as Type Ha.
Question 39: Most common site for hydatid cyst
- A. Lung
- B. Liver (Correct Answer)
- C. Brain
- D. Kidney
Explanation: ***Liver*** - The **liver** is the most common site for hydatid cysts, accounting for approximately **60-70%** of cases [1]. - It often leads to **biliary obstruction** and liver dysfunction, highlighting its impact on the organ. *Kidney* - Hydatid cysts in the **kidney** are rare and account for a small percentage of cases (around **2-5%**). - Symptoms are often nonspecific, including **flank pain** or hematuria, which are not primary concerns. *Brain* - While the **brain** can be affected, it is not a common site; CNS involvement occurs in only **1-2%** of hydatid disease cases. - Symptoms are related to increased intracranial pressure or focal neurological deficits, not typical for hydatid cysts. *Lung* - The **lung** is another site for hydatid cysts but accounts for about **10-20%** of cases. - Presentation may include **cough** and chest pain, making it less common compared to liver involvement.
Question 40: Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with giardiasis?
- A. Steatorrhea and flatulence (Correct Answer)
- B. All of the options
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Abdominal pain
Explanation: ***Steatorrhea and flatulence*** - **Giardiasis** is an intestinal infection caused by the parasite *Giardia lamblia*, leading to malabsorption and characteristic symptoms [1]. - The parasite attaches to the intestinal lining, interfering with fat absorption, which results in **steatorrhea** (fatty, foul-smelling stools) and increased gas production causing **flatulence** [1]. *Nausea and vomiting* - While **nausea** can occur in giardiasis, **vomiting** is less common as a primary or dominant symptom. - These symptoms are more characteristic of other gastrointestinal infections like **viral gastroenteritis**. *Abdominal pain* - **Abdominal pain** is a general symptom that can occur with many gastrointestinal issues, including giardiasis [1]. - However, it's not as specific or as clinically defining for giardiasis as **steatorrhea** and **flatulence**, which are direct consequences of the parasite's impact on fat absorption. *All of the options* - Although some patients with giardiasis may experience nausea and abdominal pain, **steatorrhea** and **flatulence** are the most direct and specific indicators of the malabsorption caused by *Giardia lamblia* [1]. - Choosing "all of the above" would imply that all listed symptoms are equally common and specific, which is not the case for giardiasis.