In a clinical study examining the relationship between weight and height in pediatric patients, what is the maximum possible value of the correlation coefficient if the correlation is very strong?
The population is divided into homogeneous subgroups, and then individuals are randomly selected from each subgroup. What type of sampling is this?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the recovery phase after a disaster?
Which type of waste is not suitable for incineration?
Which of the following is the nodal centre for disaster management at the district level in India?
Infant mortality rate in India is per 1000 live births?
Vaccines are available against which types of meningococcus?
Which of the following viral diseases is least commonly reported in India?
What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
Infectivity period of chickenpox is ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: In a clinical study examining the relationship between weight and height in pediatric patients, what is the maximum possible value of the correlation coefficient if the correlation is very strong?
- A. 0
- B. +1 (Correct Answer)
- C. +2
- D. No correlation
Explanation: ***+1 (perfect positive correlation)*** - A correlation coefficient of **+1** indicates a perfect positive linear relationship between two variables, meaning as one variable increases, the other increases proportionally. - This value represents the **maximum possible strength** for a positive correlation. *0* - A correlation coefficient of **0** indicates no linear relationship between two variables. - This would contradict the premise that the correlation is "very strong". *+2 (invalid value for correlation coefficient)* - The correlation coefficient, also known as Pearson's r, can only range from **-1 to +1**. - A value of +2 is outside this possible range and is therefore an **invalid value**. *No correlation (not possible for strong correlation)* - **No correlation** implies a correlation coefficient of 0 or close to 0. - This directly contradicts the statement that there is a **very strong correlation** between weight and height.
Question 52: The population is divided into homogeneous subgroups, and then individuals are randomly selected from each subgroup. What type of sampling is this?
- A. Simple random
- B. Stratified random (Correct Answer)
- C. Cluster
- D. Systematic random
Explanation: ***Stratified random*** - In **stratified random sampling**, the population is first divided into homogeneous subgroups (strata), and then a simple random sample is drawn from each stratum. - This method ensures representation from all subgroups, which is implied by the description "separated into groups, from each group people are selected randomly." *Simple random* - **Simple random sampling** involves selecting individuals from an entire population purely by chance, where each individual has an equal probability of being chosen. - This method does not involve an initial division of the population into distinct groups before selection. *Systematic random* - **Systematic random sampling** involves selecting every nth individual from a list after a random starting point. - This method does not involve dividing the population into groups and then sampling from each group. *Cluster* - **Cluster sampling** involves dividing the population into clusters (usually naturally occurring groups), randomly selecting a few clusters, and then sampling *all* individuals within the selected clusters. - In cluster sampling, individuals are not randomly selected *from each* group; instead, entire groups are selected.
Question 53: Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the recovery phase after a disaster?
- A. Rehabilitation
- B. Reconstruction
- C. Response (Correct Answer)
- D. Mitigation
Explanation: ***Response (Correct Answer)*** - **Response** activities occur during or immediately after the disaster event, NOT in the recovery phase - Includes immediate search and rescue, medical triage, emergency shelter provision, and acute crisis management - The goal is to **save lives, protect property**, and meet basic human needs during the acute crisis (typically 0-72 hours) - This is distinct from the recovery phase, which begins after the immediate emergency is controlled *Rehabilitation* - **Rehabilitation** is a key component of the **recovery phase** - Focuses on restoring services and infrastructure to acceptable levels after the initial emergency - Includes both physical recovery of individuals and return to functionality of critical systems like utilities and healthcare *Reconstruction* - **Reconstruction** is a major part of the **recovery phase** - Involves rebuilding infrastructure, homes, and communities, often to a better, more resilient standard than before - This is often a lengthy process aiming for long-term stability and development *Mitigation* - While **mitigation** can be incorporated into recovery planning, it is primarily focused on **future disaster prevention** - Measures taken to reduce the **loss of life and property** from future disasters - Can be implemented before a disaster strikes or planned during recovery, but the emphasis is on **risk reduction for future events** rather than immediate restoration from the current event
Question 54: Which type of waste is not suitable for incineration?
- A. Anatomic waste
- B. Microbiology waste
- C. Halogenated plastic (Correct Answer)
- D. Infectious waste
Explanation: ***Halogenated plastic*** - **Halogenated plastics** (e.g., PVC) should not be incinerated due to the release of **dioxins and furans**, which are highly toxic and persistent environmental pollutants. - Incineration of these materials leads to the formation of **acid gases** like hydrochloric acid, contributing to acid rain and environmental damage. *Anatomic waste* - **Anatomic waste**, such as body parts or tissues, is generally suitable for incineration, as this process effectively sterilizes and reduces the volume of the waste. - Incineration provides a **high-temperature destruction method** that eliminates pathogens and renders the waste inert. *Microbiology waste* - **Microbiology waste**, including cultures and petri dishes, is suitable for incineration because the intense heat effectively destroys all pathogenic microorganisms. - This method ensures **complete sterilization** and safe disposal, preventing the spread of infectious agents. *Infectious waste* - **Infectious waste**, including blood-soaked materials and sharps, is typically treated by incineration due to its effectiveness in destroying pathogens and reducing volume. - Incineration is a key method for managing **biohazardous waste** to minimize health risks and environmental contamination.
Question 55: Which of the following is the nodal centre for disaster management at the district level in India?
- A. District Collector's office (Correct Answer)
- B. PHC
- C. Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
- D. CHC
Explanation: ***District Collector's office*** - The **District Collector (Deputy Commissioner/District Magistrate)** is the **chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)** as per the Disaster Management Act, 2005. - The District Collector's office serves as the **nodal centre for all disaster management activities** at the district level, with overall administrative and operational responsibility. - The District Collector coordinates all disaster preparedness, response, relief, and rehabilitation activities in the district. *Emergency Operations Center (EOC)* - The **EOC** is a **functional/operational unit** that assists in disaster coordination and information management. - It serves as a support mechanism for the District Collector but is **not the nodal agency itself**. - The EOC operates under the administrative framework of the District Disaster Management Authority. *PHC* - A **Primary Health Centre (PHC)** is the first point of contact for healthcare in rural areas. - Its role in disasters is limited to providing initial medical aid and supporting community health needs. - It is not an administrative or coordinating body for overall disaster management. *CHC* - A **Community Health Centre (CHC)** provides secondary healthcare services and acts as a referral center for PHCs. - While important for medical response during disasters, it has no administrative role in disaster management coordination.
Question 56: Infant mortality rate in India is per 1000 live births?
- A. 25
- B. 55
- C. 60
- D. 34 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***34*** - As per the **Sample Registration System (SRS)** data around **2012-2013**, India's **Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)** was reported as **34 deaths per 1,000 live births**. - This represents the number of infant deaths (before completing one year of age) per 1,000 live births in a given year. - This was the approximate national average used for the NEET-2013 examination period. *25* - This figure represents a lower IMR than the national average for India during 2012-2013. - While some progressive states like Kerala had achieved IMR closer to this figure, it was not the overall national rate at that time. *55* - This figure is higher than the reported national IMR for India in 2012-2013. - India's IMR had already declined below this level due to improved maternal and child health programs under NRHM (National Rural Health Mission). *60* - This value represents a historical estimate from earlier years (pre-2010). - By 2012-2013, India had made significant progress in reducing infant mortality from these higher historical levels through better healthcare access and immunization coverage.
Question 57: Vaccines are available against which types of meningococcus?
- A. Type A
- B. Type B
- C. Type A, B, and C
- D. Type A, B, C, W, and Y (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Type A, B, C, W, and Y*** - Vaccines are currently available against **all five major meningococcal serogroups**: A, B, C, W-135, and Y. - **Meningococcal conjugate vaccines (MenACWY)** provide protection against serogroups A, C, W-135, and Y, and are widely used globally. - **Meningococcal B vaccines (MenB)** such as Bexsero and Trumenba specifically target serogroup B, which is a leading cause of meningococcal disease in developed countries. - Combined, these vaccines provide comprehensive coverage against the most epidemiologically important meningococcal serogroups worldwide. *Type A* - While vaccines against **meningococcus type A** do exist (as part of conjugate vaccines), this option is incomplete as it excludes the other important serogroups (B, C, W, Y) for which vaccines are also available. *Type B* - **Type B vaccines** are available and important, particularly in developed countries where serogroup B causes significant disease burden. - However, this option alone is insufficient because vaccines also effectively target other serogroups (A, C, W, Y). *Type A, B, and C* - This option is incomplete because it omits **serogroups W and Y**, for which conjugate vaccines (MenACWY) are readily available and widely used. - The question asks which types vaccines are *available* against, not which are most common, making this an incorrect answer.
Question 58: Which of the following viral diseases is least commonly reported in India?
- A. Japanese B encephalitis
- B. Lassa fever (Correct Answer)
- C. KFD
- D. Dengue
Explanation: ***Lassa fever*** - **Lassa fever** is endemic to West Africa, with the **multimammate rat** being its primary reservoir. - Cases of Lassa fever are **extremely rare** in India, primarily limited to travel-related instances due to the geographical distribution of the disease and its vector. *Japanese B encephalitis* - **Japanese B encephalitis (JBE)** is a significant public health concern in India, particularly in endemic regions. - It is a mosquito-borne viral disease, and **vaccination programs** are ongoing to control its spread. *KFD* - **Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)** is an endemic viral hemorrhagic fever primarily found in the **Karnataka state of India**. - It is transmitted by **ticks**, making it a regionally significant but recognized viral disease within India. *Dengue* - **Dengue** is one of the most commonly reported and widespread viral diseases in India. - It is a **mosquito-borne** illness with frequent outbreaks occurring across various parts of the country.
Question 59: What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?
- A. 2-2-0-1-0-1
- B. 8-4-4-1-0-1
- C. 2-2-2-0-1-1
- D. 2-0-2-0-1-1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2-0-2-0-1-1*** - This schedule represents the **Thai Red Cross (TRC) regimen** for intradermal rabies vaccination that was standard at the time of this exam (2013). - The numbers indicate the number of vaccine doses administered at different sites: **2 doses on day 0** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 3**, **2 doses on day 7** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 14**, **1 dose on day 28**, and **1 dose on day 90**. - This was the **answer expected for NEET 2013** based on the guidelines prevalent at that time. - **Note:** Current WHO guidelines (post-2013) recommend the updated 2-2-2-0-1-1 schedule (4-site ID regimen) which includes doses on days 0, 3, 7, and 28. *2-2-0-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a recognized** intradermal rabies vaccination protocol. - Does not match any standard WHO-approved regimen for intradermal administration. *2-2-2-0-1-1* - While this may appear incorrect for the 2013 exam context, this schedule actually represents the **current updated Thai Red Cross (4-site ID) regimen** recommended by WHO in recent guidelines. - This regimen provides doses on **days 0, 3, 7, 28, and 90**, which is now the preferred intradermal schedule. - However, for the NEET 2013 exam, the older 2-0-2-0-1-1 schedule was the expected answer. *8-4-4-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a standard regimen** and involves an impractically high number of doses. - No recognized intradermal rabies protocol uses this many doses on initial days. - Would be **unnecessary and impractical** for effective post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 60: Infectivity period of chickenpox is ?
- A. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash (Correct Answer)
- B. Only when scab falls
- C. Entire incubation period
- D. 4 days before and 5 days after appearance of rash
Explanation: ***1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash*** - The infectivity period of **chickenpox (varicella)** begins approximately **1-2 days (24-48 hours) before the rash appears**. - It extends until **all lesions have crusted over**, which typically occurs around **5-6 days after rash onset**, though some sources cite **4-5 days**. - This option represents the **commonly accepted timeframe** taught in Indian medical curricula and NEET PG examinations. *4 days before and 5 days after appearance of rash* - The **pre-rash infectivity period is too long** in this option; chickenpox is infectious for only **1-2 days before rash**, not 4 days. - While the "5 days after" is medically accurate, the incorrect pre-rash duration makes this option wrong. *Only when scab falls* - This statement is **incorrect**; infectivity starts much earlier, **1-2 days before the rash appears**. - By the time scabs fall, the person is **no longer infectious**, as crusted lesions contain non-infectious material. - This option ignores the critical **pre-rash and early rash infectious period**. *Entire incubation period* - The **incubation period** for chickenpox is usually **10-21 days**, during which the individual is **not infectious** for most of this time. - Infectivity begins only in the **last 1-2 days of incubation** (just before rash onset) and continues into the eruptive phase, not for the entire duration.