Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?
What is the type of Intussusception that is most frequently observed?
In the context of inflammatory breast cancer, what is the TNM stage associated with the peau d'orange appearance?
What is the first-line intervention for acute symptomatic hydroureter with ureteral obstruction requiring urgent decompression?
Which of the following hernias has the highest risk of strangulation?
What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
What is the treatment of choice for anal carcinoma?
What is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for complete rectal prolapse?
What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?
- A. Calcium deficiency
- B. Iron deficiency (Correct Answer)
- C. Steatorrhoea
- D. Fluid loss
Explanation: ***Iron deficiency*** - Gastrectomy often leads to **achlorhydria** or hypochlorhydria, reducing the conversion of **ferric iron** (Fe3+) to its more absorbable ferrous form (Fe2+). - Additionally, bypassing the duodenum, a primary site of iron absorption, further contributes to **iron malabsorption**. *Calcium deficiency* - While gastrectomy can contribute to calcium malabsorption due to reduced gastric acidity and faster transit, **iron deficiency** is typically a more direct and common initial consequence. - **Vitamin D deficiency**, often co-occurring with gastrectomy, is a more direct cause of **calcium malabsorption**. *Steatorrhoea* - **Steatorrhoea** (fat malabsorption) is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **pancreas** or **small intestine** (e.g., celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis) rather than primarily gastrectomy unless there is significant bile salt malabsorption or rapid gastric emptying affecting nutrient mixing. - Although rapid transit post-gastrectomy can sometimes impair fat digestion, it's not the most common direct consequence compared to iron deficiency. *Fluid loss* - **Fluid loss** is usually an acute post-surgical complication or related to conditions causing vomiting or diarrhea, and not a common long-term consequence of gastrectomy itself. - While **dumping syndrome** can occur after gastrectomy, causing osmotic fluid shifts into the intestine, generalized chronic fluid loss is not a primary recognized long-term sequela.
Question 22: What is the type of Intussusception that is most frequently observed?
- A. Ileocolic type (Correct Answer)
- B. Ileoileal type
- C. Colo-colic type
- D. Caeco-colic type
Explanation: ***Ileocolic type*** - This is the **most common form of intussusception**, accounting for approximately 75% to 90% of cases, especially in children. - It occurs when the **ileum telescopes into the colon** at the ileocecal valve. *Ileoileal type* - This type involves the **invagination of one part of the ileum into another part of the ileum**. - While it can occur, it is **less common than ileocolic intussusception** and is more often associated with a pathological lead point in older children and adults. *Colo-colic type* - This involves the **telescoping of one segment of the colon into another segment of the colon**. - It is **rare in children** and, when present, is almost always associated with a pathological lead point, such as a polyp or tumor, primarily in adults. *Caeco-colic type* - This type occurs when the **cecum telescopes into the ascending colon**. - It is also a **relatively uncommon form of intussusception** compared to the ileocolic type.
Question 23: In the context of inflammatory breast cancer, what is the TNM stage associated with the peau d'orange appearance?
- A. T4b (Correct Answer)
- B. T4a
- C. T3
- D. T2
Explanation: ***T4b*** * The **TNM staging system** classifies T4b specifically for inflammatory breast cancer, which is characterized by the presence of **peau d'orange** (edema) of the skin of the breast. * This T stage also encompasses **ulceration of the skin** of the breast or satellite nodules confined to the same breast. *T4a* * T4a describes an **extension to the chest wall**, which includes the ribs, intercostal muscles, and serratus anterior muscle, but **not** the pectoralis muscle, which is generally not considered part of the chest wall for this classification. * This stage does **not** include the characteristic skin changes associated with inflammatory breast cancer. *T3* * T3 describes a tumor with a **size greater than 5 cm** in its greatest dimension, without direct extension to the chest wall or skin involvement. * This stage is based solely on tumor size and **does not account for the skin changes** like peau d'orange. *T2* * T2 describes a tumor with a **size greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm** in its greatest dimension. * Similar to T3, this stage is also based on tumor size and **does not include any skin involvement** or inflammatory features.
Question 24: What is the first-line intervention for acute symptomatic hydroureter with ureteral obstruction requiring urgent decompression?
- A. Antibiotic prophylaxis alone
- B. Immediate ureterolithotomy
- C. Endoscopic ureteral stenting (Correct Answer)
- D. Urinary alkalization
Explanation: ***Endoscopic ureteral stenting*** - **Endoscopic ureteral stenting** is the primary intervention for **acute symptomatic ureteral obstruction** requiring urgent decompression when the obstruction causes **hydroureter**. - This minimally invasive procedure provides immediate drainage from the kidney to the bladder, preventing further renal damage, managing pain, and relieving obstruction. - **Indications for urgent stenting** include: infected hydronephrosis, impaired renal function, intractable pain, solitary kidney with obstruction, or bilateral obstruction. - Alternative to stenting is **percutaneous nephrostomy**, particularly when retrograde stent placement fails or in infected systems. *Antibiotic prophylaxis alone* - While antibiotics are essential when infection complicates obstruction (pyonephrosis), **antibiotics alone cannot relieve the mechanical obstruction**. - The physical blockage must be addressed to prevent progressive renal damage and sepsis. *Immediate ureterolithotomy* - **Open ureterolithotomy** is a definitive surgical treatment but is **not first-line** for acute obstruction. - It is more invasive and typically reserved for failed endoscopic management, large impacted stones, or anatomical abnormalities preventing endoscopic access. - Modern approach favors initial decompression followed by definitive treatment (ureteroscopy, ESWL, or surgery). *Urinary alkalization* - **Urinary alkalization** may help dissolve **uric acid stones** over time but does not provide immediate relief of acute obstruction. - This is an adjunctive measure for specific stone types, not an emergency intervention for symptomatic hydroureter.
Question 25: Which of the following hernias has the highest risk of strangulation?
- A. Indirect
- B. Spigelian (Correct Answer)
- C. Direct
- D. Incisional
Explanation: ***Spigelian*** - **Spigelian hernias** occur through a defect in the **Spigelian aponeurosis** (between the semilunar line and lateral border of rectus abdominis), typically inferior to the arcuate line. - They have a **high risk of strangulation (20-25%)** due to their **narrow fascial defect** and tendency to become incarcerated through the layers of the abdominal wall. - The hernia often becomes **interparietal** (between muscle layers), making it difficult to detect clinically, which increases the risk of delayed presentation and strangulation. *Indirect* - **Indirect inguinal hernias** pass through the **deep inguinal ring** and follow the inguinal canal, potentially entering the scrotum. - While they do have a narrow neck that can cause strangulation, their **strangulation risk is moderate (~10-15%)**, lower than Spigelian hernias. - They are the most common type of hernia but not the highest risk for strangulation among these options. *Direct* - **Direct inguinal hernias** protrude through **Hesselbach's triangle** in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. - They have a **broad-based neck**, making strangulation relatively uncommon (~5%). - The wider defect allows easier reduction and less constriction of contents. *Incisional* - **Incisional hernias** develop at previous surgical incision sites due to fascial weakness or inadequate healing. - While they can incarcerate, they typically have a **wider neck** and **lower strangulation risk** compared to Spigelian or indirect inguinal hernias. - Risk varies with defect size, but generally not the highest among common hernia types.
Question 26: What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
- A. Turn head
- B. None of the options
- C. Maintain airway
- D. Immobilization of spine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Immobilization of spine*** - In the context of **isolated cervical spine injury management**, **spinal immobilization** is the primary intervention to prevent further neurological damage. - This is typically achieved using a **cervical collar** and **backboard** to maintain in-line spinal stabilization. - **Note**: In actual trauma scenarios following **ATLS protocols**, airway management and cervical spine immobilization occur **simultaneously** as the first priority (Airway with C-spine protection). *Turn head* - **Turning the head** is absolutely contraindicated as it can exacerbate a cervical spine injury, leading to further compression or damage to the **spinal cord**. - Maintaining a **neutral, in-line position** is critical to avoid neurological deterioration. *Maintain airway* - In comprehensive trauma management per **ATLS guidelines**, **airway management with simultaneous cervical spine protection** is the first priority in the ABC sequence. - Airway is maintained using methods that do not compromise spinal stability, such as a **jaw thrust maneuver** or **endotracheal intubation with manual in-line stabilization**. - The distinction here is that this question focuses on the specific step for **spinal injury management** rather than overall trauma priorities. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **immobilization of the spine** is a definitive priority in managing a suspected cervical spine injury. - Both spinal immobilization and airway management are critical interventions that should occur together in actual practice.
Question 27: How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
- A. 75% (Correct Answer)
- B. 50%
- C. 25%
- D. 100%
Explanation: ***75%*** - A **60-degree Z-plasty** lengthens the central limb by approximately **75%** of its original length. This configuration provides a balance between length gain and flap viability. - The greater the angle of the Z-plasty limbs, the greater the theoretical lengthening, but also the larger the flaps and the increased risk of complications. *25%* - A **30-degree Z-plasty** typically provides about **25% lengthening** of the central limb. This angle offers less lengthening but is useful for smaller scars or when skin mobility is limited. - While it provides some lengthening, it falls significantly short of the length achieved with a 60-degree Z-plasty. *50%* - A **45-degree Z-plasty** generally results in approximately **50% lengthening**. This is an intermediate option, providing moderate lengthening. - This option does not match the significant lengthening associated with the larger 60-degree angle. *100%* - To achieve approximately **100% length gain**, larger angles such as **75 or 90-degree Z-plasty** might be considered. However, these angles are less commonly used due to increased flap size and tension at the base. - A standard 60-degree Z-plasty does not provide a 100% increase in length.
Question 28: What is the treatment of choice for anal carcinoma?
- A. Chemotherapy alone
- B. APR combined with radiotherapy
- C. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Chemoradiation*** - This combined modality is the **standard of care** for most anal carcinomas, achieving high cure rates while preserving sphincter function. - The combination of **chemotherapy** (e.g., 5-fluorouracil and mitomycin C) and **external beam radiation** works synergistically to destroy cancer cells. *Chemotherapy alone* - **Chemotherapy alone** is generally insufficient as a primary treatment for anal carcinoma. - It is often used in combination with radiation or for **metastatic disease**, but not as a monotherapy for curative intent in localized disease. *APR combined with radiotherapy* - **Abdominoperineal resection (APR)** combined with radiotherapy is typically reserved for **recurrent** or **persistent anal carcinoma** after failed chemoradiation, or for very advanced tumors. - APR is a highly morbid surgery leading to a **permanent colostomy**, and primary chemoradiation aims to avoid this outcome. *All of the options* - As **chemoradiation** is the preferred first-line treatment and other options are either inadequate or reserved for specific situations, stating "all of the options" is incorrect. - The treatment strategy for anal carcinoma involves a nuanced approach, prioritizing **organ preservation** with effective cancer control.
Question 29: What is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for complete rectal prolapse?
- A. Rectal mucosal stapling
- B. Placation/wiring
- C. Rectopexy (Correct Answer)
- D. Mucosal resection
Explanation: ***Rectopexy*** - **Rectopexy** is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for full-thickness rectal prolapse - It involves fixing the rectum to the sacral promontory or presacral fascia (with sutures or mesh) to prevent prolapse - Various modifications exist including suture rectopexy, mesh rectopexy, ventral rectopexy, and resection rectopexy - **Abdominal approach** is preferred in fit patients with better long-term outcomes compared to perineal procedures *Rectal mucosal stapling* - This procedure refers to **stapled hemorrhoidopexy (PPH)** or **STARR procedure** - Primarily used for **internal mucosal prolapse** and hemorrhoids, not full-thickness external rectal prolapse - Involves excising redundant rectal mucosa using circular staplers - Does not address the full-thickness prolapse or provide proper fixation *Placation/wiring* - **Thiersch wiring** is a historical perineal procedure involving placement of a wire or suture around the anus to narrow the anal canal - Now largely abandoned due to high recurrence rates and complications - **Plication** refers to folding tissue but is not a standalone procedure name for rectal prolapse - This terminology is not standard in modern colorectal surgery *Mucosal resection* - Refers to **Delorme's procedure**, a perineal approach involving mucosal sleeve resection with underlying muscle plication - Used in elderly or high-risk patients who cannot tolerate abdominal surgery - Associated with higher recurrence rates compared to abdominal rectopexy - Does not provide the same level of fixation as abdominal procedures
Question 30: What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?
- A. Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hyponatremia
Explanation: ***Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis*** - In ureterosigmoidostomy, the reabsorption of urinary constituents like **chloride** and **urea** from the bowel mucosa leads to **hyperchloremia**. - The exchange of **chloride** for **bicarbonate** and the concomitant loss of **potassium** from the colon results in **hypokalemic metabolic acidosis**. *Hyperkalemia* - Colonic reabsorption of urinary products typically causes **potassium wasting** and **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia. - While some potassium is reabsorbed, the overall effect due to the exchange for hydrogen ions and fluid loss from the colon is a net decrease in serum potassium. *Metabolic alkalosis* - Metabolic alkalosis involves an increase in **bicarbonate**, which is the opposite of what occurs in ureterosigmoidostomy where bicarbonate is lost. - The increased reabsorption of urea and chloride from the urine in the colon leads to an **acidic state** due to increased **hydrogen ion production** and **bicarbonate depletion**. *Hyponatremia* - Although some **sodium** reabsorption can occur, the primary electrolyte imbalances are related to chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate. - While some intestinal urinary diversion procedures can lead to hyponatremia due to volume changes or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), it is not the most characteristic or direct metabolic consequence of ureterosigmoidostomy itself.