Which of the following does not belong to the family of selectins?
In which type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma are lacunar cells typically observed?
What type of anaemia is primarily associated with leukaemia?
Which of the following is not typically seen in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Maximum collagen deposition in wound healing is seen at -
What laboratory findings are associated with common variable hypogammaglobulinemia?
Li–Fraumeni syndrome is associated with mutations in which of the following genes?
Cystic medial necrosis is seen in?
What is the most important prognostic factor of Wilms tumour?
Starry sky appearance is seen in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which of the following does not belong to the family of selectins?
- A. P selectin
- B. L selectin
- C. A selectin (Correct Answer)
- D. E selectin
Explanation: ***A selectin*** - ***A selectin*** is not a recognized member of the selectin family, which includes other specific types. - The known selectins are **E-selectin**, **L-selectin**, and **P-selectin**, demonstrating a distinct classification [1]. *E selectin* - E selectin is a specific type of selectin expressed on **endothelial cells** activated by cytokines [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **leukocyte adhesion** during inflammation, distinguishing it as part of the selectin family [1]. *L selectin* - L selectin is involved in the **homing** of leukocytes to lymph nodes and forms part of the selectin family [1]. - Responsible for the initial tethering and rolling of leukocytes on **venular endothelium** [1]. *P selectin* - P selectin is found on platelets and endothelial cells and is critical in the **aggregation** of platelets and leukocytes. - It is also an established member of the selectin family, involved in **inflammatory responses** [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, p. 87.
Question 32: In which type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma are lacunar cells typically observed?
- A. Mixed cellularity type
- B. Lymphocyte predominant type
- C. Nodular Sclerosis type (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Nodular Sclerosis Type*** - **Lacunar cells** are characteristically seen in **Nodular Sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma**, which is the most common subtype [1][3]. - These cells are large **Reed-Sternberg cells** with a distinctive morphology, typically found in **fibrous areas** of the lymph node [1]. *Mixed cellularity type* - This subtype is associated with a diverse cell population but does not primarily feature **lacunar cells** [2][4]. - It predominantly contains **Reed-Sternberg cells** without the specific morphology seen in nodular sclerosis [2]. *Lymphocyte predominant* - Lymphocyte predominant type mainly consists of **lymphocytes** with few Reed-Sternberg cells, and lacks **lacunar cells** [5]. - The histology is significantly different, exhibiting a more lymphocytic composition and not the classic lucent spaces [5]. *All of the above* - This option is incorrect as neither **Mixed cellularity** nor **Lymphocyte predominant** types contain **lacunar cells** [2][4][5]. - Lacunar cells are a distinctive feature solely of the **Nodular Sclerosis type** in Hodgkin lymphoma [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 616. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 616-618. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 558-559. [4] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 559-560. [5] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618.
Question 33: What type of anaemia is primarily associated with leukaemia?
- A. Aplastic anaemia
- B. Iron deficiency anaemia
- C. Megaloblastic anaemia
- D. Myelophthisic anaemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Myelophthisic anaemia*** - This condition arises from the **displacement of normal hematopoietic tissue** in the bone marrow by abnormal cells, like those seen in leukaemia, leading to **extramedullary hematopoiesis**. - Marrow infiltration causes **pancytopenia** and often results in the presence of **immature granulocytes** and **nucleated red blood cells** in the peripheral blood (leukoerythroblastosis). *Iron deficiency anaemia* - This type of anaemia is caused by insufficient iron for **hemoglobin synthesis**, often due to chronic blood loss or inadequate dietary intake. - While leukaemia patients can develop iron deficiency due to bleeding, it is not the **primary type of anaemia** directly resulting from the marrow infiltration by leukaemic cells. *Megaloblastic anaemia* - Characterized by the production of abnormally large, immature red blood cells, primarily due to **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiency**. - There is no direct causal link between leukaemia and the development of megaloblastic anaemia as a **primary haemato-pathological mechanism**. *Aplastic anaemia* - Characterized by **pancytopenia** due to bone marrow failure with hypocellular marrow, not marrow infiltration. - While both leukaemia and aplastic anaemia can present with cytopenias, aplastic anaemia shows a **hypocellular marrow** whereas leukaemia shows a **hypercellular marrow** with infiltration by malignant cells.
Question 34: Which of the following is not typically seen in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Thrombocytopenia
- B. PT elevation
- C. Fibrinogen decreased
- D. Normal aPTT (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Normal APTT*** - In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (**DIC**), **APTT** is typically **prolonged** due to consumption of clotting factors [1]. - The presence of normal APTT indicates that coagulation pathways are not significantly affected, which is contrary to what is seen in DIC. *Fibrinogen decreased* - **Decreased fibrinogen levels** are common in DIC, reflecting its consumption during the coagulation process [1]. - This depletion is linked to the increased clotting and is a hallmark of DIC, making this statement false in the context of the question. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** occurs in DIC as platelets are consumed during the formation of microclots [1]. - A significant drop in platelet count is a key feature of DIC, therefore this statement does not align with the "except" clause. *PT elevation* - Prothrombin Time (**PT**) is usually **elevated** in DIC due to the consumption of clotting factors [1]. - This reflects the ongoing activation of the coagulation cascade, supporting the exclusion in the question context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 625-626.
Question 35: Maximum collagen deposition in wound healing is seen at -
- A. End of third week (Correct Answer)
- B. End of first week
- C. End of 2 months
- D. End of second week
Explanation: ***End of third week*** - By the end of the **third week**, the proliferative phase of wound healing is well underway, characterized by significant **collagen deposition**. [1] - At this stage, **Type III collagen** is initially laid down, which is later replaced by stronger **Type I collagen**, contributing to increasing wound strength. *End of first week* - The first week primarily involves the **inflammatory phase** and the initial stages of **proliferation**, with minimal new collagen deposition. [2] - While some **fibroblasts** are present, the amount of collagen synthesized is still relatively low. *End of second week* - Collagen synthesis is ongoing during the second week, but the **peak deposition rate** and overall amount of collagen accumulated are typically not as high as at the end of the third week. - The wound is gaining strength, but further increase in collagen content and remodeling is yet to occur. *End of 2 months* - By 2 months, the wound is in the **remodeling phase**, where the total collagen content might be substantial but the *rate of new collagen synthesis* has slowed down. - At this stage, there is a balance between **collagen synthesis** and **degradation**, and the collagen fibers are being reorganized and cross-linked to further improve tensile strength. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 117-119. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, p. 115.
Question 36: What laboratory findings are associated with common variable hypogammaglobulinemia?
- A. Low serum immunoglobulin levels (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased B cell count
- C. Increased B cell count
- D. Neutropenia
Explanation: ***Low serum immunoglobulin levels*** - **Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia (CVID)** is characterized by significantly **low levels of IgG, IgA, and/or IgM** due to impaired B cell differentiation into plasma cells. - This deficiency in antibodies is the hallmark of the disorder, explaining the increased susceptibility to infections. *Decreased B cell count* - While CVID involves impaired B cell function, the **B cell counts** in the peripheral blood are typically **normal** or sometimes even elevated [1]. - The problem lies in their inability to differentiate and produce adequate antibodies, not in their numerical presence [1]. *Increased B cell count* - An increased B cell count is not a characteristic finding in CVID; peripheral B cell numbers are usually normal [1]. - If B cell counts are significantly increased, other conditions such as certain **lymphoproliferative disorders** should be considered. *Neutropenia* - **Neutropenia** (low neutrophil count) is not a primary diagnostic feature of CVID, although it can occur in some patients with autoimmune complications. - The defining laboratory finding is the **deficiency of immunoglobulins**, leading to recurrent infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 249-250.
Question 37: Li–Fraumeni syndrome is associated with mutations in which of the following genes?
- A. Gene RB1
- B. Gene BRCA1
- C. Gene P21
- D. Gene TP53 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gene TP53*** - Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare, inherited cancer susceptibility syndrome associated with germline mutations in the **TP53 tumor suppressor gene**. - The **TP53 gene** encodes the p53 protein, which plays a critical role in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, and initiation of apoptosis in response to cellular stress, thus preventing tumor formation. *Gene P21* - The **p21 gene** (CDKN1A) is a cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor that acts downstream of p53, mediating p53-induced cell cycle arrest. - While p21 is involved in the p53 pathway, mutations in p21 itself are not the primary cause of Li-Fraumeni syndrome. *Gene RB1* - The **RB1 gene** encodes the retinoblastoma protein, a tumor suppressor involved in cell cycle regulation, particularly in controlling passage from G1 to S phase. - Mutations in **RB1** are primarily associated with hereditary retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma, not Li-Fraumeni syndrome. *Gene BRCA1* - The **BRCA1 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair, especially homologous recombination. - Germline mutations in **BRCA1** are strongly associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome, not Li-Fraumeni syndrome.
Question 38: Cystic medial necrosis is seen in?
- A. Marfan syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Friedreich's ataxia
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Kawasaki disease
Explanation: ***Marfans syndrome*** - Cystic medial necrosis is a prominent feature of Marfan syndrome, leading to **aortic dilation** and increased risk of dissection [1] [2]. - It is associated with **connective tissue abnormalities**, specifically affecting elastic fibers in the aorta [2]. *Kawasaki disease* - Primarily affects children, leading to **vasculitis** of medium-sized arteries, especially the coronary arteries. - Does not characteristically cause **cystic medial necrosis** in the aorta. *Friedrichs ataxia Pattern* - An autosomal recessive disorder characterized by degeneration of spinal cord and peripheral nerves, not related to cystic medial necrosis. - Presents with **ataxia**, **scoliosis**, and **diabetes**, lacking cardiovascular changes associated with cystic medial necrosis. *Downs syndrome* - A genetic condition resulting from **trisomy 21**, associated with various congenital anomalies but not specifically with cystic medial necrosis. - Includes features like **heart defects** but does not involve the aortic changes seen in Marfan syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 511-512. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 153-154.
Question 39: What is the most important prognostic factor of Wilms tumour?
- A. Mutation of WT1 gene
- B. Histopathology (Correct Answer)
- C. Ploidy of cells
- D. Age < 1 yr
Explanation: ***Histopathology*** - The presence of **anaplastic histology**, particularly diffuse anaplasia, is the most significant adverse prognostic factor in Wilms tumor. - Tumors with favorable histology (triphasic, blastemal, stromal, or epithelial predominant) have an excellent prognosis, while those with anaplastic features have significantly worse outcomes [1]. *Ploidy of cells* - While **aneuploidy** (specifically, **hyperdiploidy**) has been associated with improved prognosis in some childhood cancers, its role as an independent prognostic factor in Wilms tumor is less significant than histology [2]. - It is not the most important factor in determining the overall outcome. *Age < 1 yr* - **Younger age** (typically less than 1 year) at diagnosis is generally associated with a **more favorable prognosis** in Wilms tumor. - This is because these tumors are often smaller, less aggressive, and more likely to have favorable histology. *Mutation of WT1 gene* - **WT1 gene mutations** are implicated in the development of Wilms tumor, particularly in syndromes like WAGR (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, intellectual disability). - While critical for pathogenesis, the mere presence of a WT1 mutation is **not the primary determinant** of prognosis compared to tumor histology. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 488-490. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 486-487.
Question 40: Starry sky appearance is seen in which of the following?
- A. Burkitt's Lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma
- C. Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL)
- D. Follicular Lymphoma
Explanation: ***Burkitts lymphoma*** - The **starry sky appearance** is a characteristic histopathological finding due to interspersed macrophages containing **phagocytosed apoptotic cells** and necrotic debris in Burkitt's lymphoma [1]. - It is associated with **MYC gene translocation** and presents typically in children or young adults, commonly affecting the **jaw or abdomen**. *CIL* - CIL (chronic inflammatory leukocytosis) does not exhibit a **starry sky appearance**; it typically reflects a reactive process without specific histological features. - The histology is more characterized by **increased white blood cell counts** rather than tissue architecture alterations seen in lymphomas. *Diffuse large B cell lymphoma* - While this lymphoma can show **varied morphology**, it does not have a **starry sky appearance** as a defining feature, rather presenting with **large atypical B-cells**. - The histological appearance is generally of a **diffuse infiltrate**, which lacks the classic starry sky histology. *ALCL* - Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) is characterized by **large, pleomorphic cells** but does not show a starry sky appearance. - The histological pattern primarily focuses on **large anaplastic lymphoid cells** rather than the scattered macrophages seen in Burkitt's lymphoma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 606.