Which of the following statements about desmoid tumors is incorrect?
Which tumor marker is most commonly associated with lung and breast carcinoma?
Vegetations in Libman-Sacks endocarditis are:
Medial calcification is seen in -
What is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome in adults, excluding IgA nephropathy?
Which type of immunoglobulin is primarily associated with cold agglutinin disease?
Which acquired condition is most commonly associated with spherocytes?
Which of the following is NOT a pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism?
What is a Klatskin tumor?
Which of the following tumors is not derived from the meninges?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which of the following statements about desmoid tumors is incorrect?
- A. Show infiltrative growth pattern
- B. Often seen below the umbilicus
- C. More common in women
- D. Highly radiosensitive (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Highly radiosensitive*** - This is the **INCORRECT** statement and hence the correct answer to this question. - Desmoid tumors are **radioresistant**, not radiosensitive, meaning they do not respond well to radiation therapy. - Radiation therapy is typically reserved for cases where surgery is not feasible or for local control after incomplete resection, but it is not highly effective as a standalone treatment. - The radioresistant nature is an important clinical characteristic that influences treatment planning. *Often seen below the umbilicus* - This statement is **correct** about desmoid tumors. - Desmoid tumors frequently arise from the **anterior abdominal wall**, with a common location being below the umbilicus, particularly in postpartum women. - Abdominal wall desmoids are strongly associated with **pregnancy** and trauma, and can be locally aggressive. *Show infiltrative growth pattern* - This statement is **correct** about desmoid tumors. [1] - Desmoid tumors are characterized by their **locally aggressive** and infiltrative growth pattern, often invading adjacent tissues like muscle, fascia, and neurovascular structures. [1] - This infiltrative nature makes complete surgical resection challenging and contributes to a high rate of **local recurrence** (up to 20-40% after surgery). - Despite their aggressive local behavior, desmoid tumors do not metastasize. *More common in women* - This statement is **correct** about desmoid tumors. - Desmoid tumors show a **female predominance**, particularly affecting women during their reproductive years (ages 25-40). - This gender predilection is linked to **hormonal influences**, with increased risk during **pregnancy** and the postpartum period. - The association with estrogen is further supported by occasional tumor regression after menopause. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 691-692.
Question 32: Which tumor marker is most commonly associated with lung and breast carcinoma?
- A. CEA (Correct Answer)
- B. hCG
- C. AFP
- D. CA-15-3
Explanation: ***CEA*** - **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)** is a tumor marker commonly associated with **lung** and **breast cancers** [1]. - Elevated levels of CEA are often observed in **various malignancies**, making it useful for monitoring treatment response and recurrence. *CA-15-3* - While **CA-15-3** is a breast cancer marker, it is less specific than CEA and often used primarily for **monitoring** but not for initial diagnosis. - It is primarily elevated in **breast carcinoma**, not typically associated with **lung cancer**. *11CG* - This ppears to be incorrectly referenced and may not exist as a recognized tumor marker for lung or breast cancer. - There are no clinical associations with lung or breast cancer, making it irrelevant in this context. *AFP* - **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is primarily associated with **liver** and **germ cell tumors**, not commonly associated with lung or breast cancers [1]. - Elevated AFP levels do not correlate with lung or breast carcinomas, distinguishing it from CEA's relevance. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 346.
Question 33: Vegetations in Libman-Sacks endocarditis are:
- A. Large and fragile
- B. Small warty along the line of closure of valve
- C. Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve (Correct Answer)
- D. Small bland vegetations
Explanation: ***Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve*** - **Libman-Sacks endocarditis** typically presents with vegetations that are **small to medium in size**, found on either aspect of the valve leaflets [1][2][3]. - These vegetations are **sterile**, non-infectious, and often associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) [2][3]. *Large and fragile* - Vegetations in Libman-Sacks endocarditis are not typically **large**; they are small or medium [1]. - The term **fragile** is misleading, as the vegetations are not characterized by fragility but by being sturdy yet non-infectious. *Small warty along the line of closure of valve* - While the vegetations are small, they are **not warty** and do not primarily form along the line of closure, which is common in infective endocarditis [1]. - Libman-Sacks vegetations can be found on either side of the valve, unlike warty vegetations [1]. *Small bland vegetations* - Vegetations in Libman-Sacks endocarditis are bland but not solely described as **small and bland**; their presence on either or both sides of the valve is critical [1]. - This option fails to capture the significance of their size and localization in the endocardial lesions associated with SLE. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 568. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 232-233. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 570.
Question 34: Medial calcification is seen in -
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Arteriolosclerosis
- C. Dissecting aneurysm
- D. Monckeberg's sclerosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Monckeberg's sclerosis*** - This condition is characterized by **calcific deposits** within the **tunica media** of muscular arteries. - It typically does not occlude the vessel lumen and is often asymptomatic, though severe calcification can lead to vessel rigidity. *Atherosclerosis* - Involves the formation of **atheromatous plaques** in the **tunica intima** of large and medium-sized arteries. - These plaques consist of lipids, inflammatory cells, smooth muscle cells, and fibrous connective tissue, leading to luminal narrowing and hardening of arteries. *Arteriolosclerosis* - Refers to the thickening and hardening of the walls of **arterioles** (small arteries). - It is often associated with hypertension and diabetes, affecting resistance vessels but typically not involving extensive medial calcification. *Dissecting aneurysm* - This condition involves a **tear in the tunica intima** of an artery, allowing blood to enter and dissect between the layers of the arterial wall. - It is a life-threatening condition primarily affecting the aorta and is characterized by a false lumen, not medial calcification.
Question 35: What is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome in adults, excluding IgA nephropathy?
- A. FSGS
- B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Explanation: ***None*** - Nephritic syndrome in adults is often caused by various conditions, but there is **no single most common cause** that universally applies. - The true prevalence can vary by population, but conditions like **IgA nephropathy** or **post-infectious glomerulonephritis** [1] are frequently encountered rather than one specific disease. *Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis* - This condition can cause a **nephritic syndrome** [1], but it is not the most common cause in adults, often seen in association with **hepatitis C** or other infections. - In practice, **IgA nephropathy** or **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** [1] are more frequently recognized causes of nephritic syndrome in adults. *Membranous glomerulonephritis* - Primarily presents with **nephrotic syndrome** rather than nephritic features [1], making it less likely to be cited as a common cause of nephritic syndrome. - It is associated with **anti-phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies** but lacks the inflammatory features of nephritis [1]. *FSGN* - **Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis** is associated with nephrotic syndrome and doesn't typically lead to classic nephritic features, such as hematuria and hypertension [1]. - Its primary presentation is with **proteinuria** and possible renal failure but not with the typical characteristics of nephritic syndrome [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 915-919.
Question 36: Which type of immunoglobulin is primarily associated with cold agglutinin disease?
- A. IgG
- B. IgM (Correct Answer)
- C. IgA
- D. IgD
Explanation: ***IgM*** - Cold agglutinins are primarily composed of **IgM antibodies** [1] which are produced in response to certain infections, notably Mycoplasma pneumoniae. - They can cause **cold agglutinin disease**, leading to hemolytic anemia when the blood is exposed to cooler temperatures [2]. *IgG* - While IgG is the most abundant antibody in blood, it is not responsible for cold agglutination. - IgG typically functions in **immune memory** and neutralization rather than agglutination at cold temperatures. *IgD* - IgD is mainly found on the surface of **B cells** and has a role in initiating B cell activation. - It plays a minimal role in the antibody response and does not participate in cold agglutination. *IgA* - IgA is primarily involved in mucosal immunity, found in secretions like saliva and tears. - It does not function as a cold agglutinin; hence, it is not associated with cold temperature-related agglutination. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 154-155. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 651-652.
Question 37: Which acquired condition is most commonly associated with spherocytes?
- A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) (Correct Answer)
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
- C. Aplastic anemia
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Autoimmune haemolytic anemia*** - This condition is characterized by the **production of antibodies** against the patient's own red blood cells, leading to **destruction** and the formation of spherocytes [1]. - The presence of ***maximum spherocytes*** in blood smears is a hallmark of this disorder due to **extravascular hemolysis** [1]. *Aplastic anemia* - Aplastic anemia is mainly due to **failure of hematopoiesis**, resulting in pancytopenia rather than spherocyte formation. - It typically presents with **normocytic** or **macrocytic anemia**, not spherocytes, as the bone marrow is not producing enough red blood cells [2]. *Vit B12 deficiency* - Vit B12 deficiency usually causes **macrocytic anemia** characterized by **megaloblastic changes** in the bone marrow and peripheral blood, not the formation of spherocytes. - The primary indicators would be **hypersegmented neutrophils** and large, ovalocytes rather than spherocytes. *None* - This option incorrectly implies that no condition causes maximum spherocytes, while autoimmune hemolytic anemia is the known condition for this finding. - Spherocytes are a specific sign in hemolytic processes and are definitely seen in conditions like **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 602-603. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 662-663.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT a pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism?
- A. Piecemeal necrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Microvesicular fatty changes
- C. Central hyaline sclerosis
- D. Ballooning degeneration
Explanation: ***Piecemeal necrosis*** - Piecemeal necrosis is not a common manifestation of chronic alcoholism but is instead more typical of **autoimmune hepatitis** or **chronic viral hepatitis**. - Chronic alcoholism primarily leads to different types of liver damage, such as **steatosis** or **apoptosis**, rather than piecemeal necrosis. *Balloning degeneration* - Balloning degeneration reflects **swelling** of hepatocytes, often associated with **alcoholic liver disease** and represents liver cell injury [1]. - It is a recognized feature seen in chronic alcohol exposure indicating the effect of toxicity on liver cells [1]. *Microvesicular fatty changes* - Microvesicular fatty changes, characterized by small fat vacuoles in liver cells, can be induced by chronic alcohol use and is commonly noted in **steatosis** [2]. - This finding is also seen in conditions like **reye syndrome** and is closely related to alcohol-induced liver injury. *Central hyaline sclerosis* - Central hyaline sclerosis refers to fibrosis and is often related to chronic liver disease but is not a direct pathological manifestation seen in chronic alcoholism. - However, chronic alcohol abuse contributes to **cirrhosis**, which can lead to various forms of liver scarring, but this is not specific to alcohol alone [3]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 389-390. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 848-850. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, p. 848.
Question 39: What is a Klatskin tumor?
- A. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
- B. Gall bladder carcinoma
- C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- D. Hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nodular type of cholangiocarcinoma*** - Klatskin tumors are a specific form of **cholangiocarcinoma** occurring at the junction of the left and right hepatic bile ducts [1]. - These tumors are characterized by **biliary obstruction** and often present with **jaundice** as a prominent clinical feature. *Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma* - This is a variant of **hepatocellular carcinoma** known for its fibrous stroma, distinct from Klatskin tumors which arise from bile ducts. - **Fibrolamellar** is more common in younger patients and typically does not cause **biliary obstruction** characteristic of Klatskin tumors. *Gall bladder carcinoma* - Gall bladder carcinoma originates from the **gallbladder epithelium**, not the bile ducts, differentiating it from Klatskin tumors. - It may present with symptoms such as **abdominal pain** and **weight loss**, rather than the specific obstructive jaundice seen in Klatskin cases. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - This cancer arises directly from hepatocytes and is unrelated to bile duct tumors like Klatskin tumors. - Commonly linked to **chronic liver disease** and liver cirrhosis, it does not typically present with **obstructive jaundice** as seen in cholangiocarcinomas [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 880-881.
Question 40: Which of the following tumors is not derived from the meninges?
- A. Meningioma
- B. Hemangiopericytoma
- C. Schwannoma
- D. Hemangioblastoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hemangioblastoma*** - This tumor is derived from **vascular endothelial cells and stromal cells**, not meningeal cells [1] - Typically found in the **cerebellum** and strongly associated with **von Hippel-Lindau disease** [1] - Has **no meningeal origin** and represents a distinct vascular neoplasm *Meningioma* - Derived from **arachnoidal cap cells** of the meninges [2] - Most common **benign primary intracranial tumor** arising from meningeal coverings [2] - Clearly of **meningeal origin** [3] *Schwannoma* - Originates from **Schwann cells** of peripheral nerve sheaths (neural crest origin) [4] - While not meningeal in origin, it commonly occurs **intracranially** affecting cranial nerves (especially CN VIII) [2] - Though also not meningeal, **hemangioblastoma is the better answer** as it's purely parenchymal/vascular, whereas schwannomas can have anatomic association with meninges [4] *Hemangiopericytoma* - Now classified as **solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma** (WHO classification) - Arises from **meningeal pericytes** around blood vessels in the meninges - Despite mesenchymal origin, it is considered part of the **meningeal tumor spectrum** and has meningeal associations **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 726-727. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 727-728. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1316-1317. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Peripheral Nerves and Skeletal Muscles, pp. 1248-1249.