NEET-PG 2012 — Ophthalmology
66 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
What is the MOST common cause of amblyopia?
Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
Which of the following organisms can penetrate a normal intact cornea?
Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal light reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?
What is the most common orbital tumor in children?
What is the term for an abnormally eccentrically placed pupil?
Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in -
What condition is characterized by a salt and pepper fundus appearance in the retina?
The 'headlight in fog' appearance is seen in which condition?
What visual disturbance is caused by an optic tract lesion?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the MOST common cause of amblyopia?
- A. Cataracts
- B. Strabismus (Correct Answer)
- C. Refractive errors
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Strabismus*** - **Strabismic amblyopia** is the **MOST common cause of amblyopia**, accounting for approximately **50% of cases**. - When the eyes are misaligned, the brain suppresses the image from the deviating eye to avoid **diplopia** (double vision). - The prolonged suppression during the critical period of visual development leads to poor visual acuity in the affected eye. - Early detection and treatment (occlusion therapy, correction of refractive errors, alignment surgery) are crucial. *Refractive errors* - **Refractive amblyopia**, particularly **anisometropia** (significant difference in refractive power between eyes), is the **second most common cause**. - The brain suppresses the blurry image from the eye with greater refractive error, leading to poor visual development. - **Bilateral high refractive errors** (isoametropic amblyopia) can also cause amblyopia, though less commonly than anisometropia. *Cataracts* - **Deprivation amblyopia** results from obstruction of the visual axis (congenital cataract, ptosis, corneal opacity). - This is a **less common but more severe** form of amblyopia requiring urgent treatment. - If untreated during the critical period, it can cause **irreversible vision loss**. *None of the options* - Incorrect, as strabismus is a well-established and the most common cause of amblyopia.
Question 2: Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
- A. Papillary hypertrophy
- B. Horner-Trantas spots
- C. Shield ulcer
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Vernal conjunctivitis (VKC)** is a severe form of allergic conjunctivitis characterized by chronic inflammation of the conjunctiva, impacting the cornea in advanced stages. - **Shield ulcers**, **Horner-Trantas dots**, and **papillary hypertrophy** are all classic clinical features observed in VKC. *Shield ulcer* - This is a **corneal complication** of severe vernal conjunctivitis, characterized by epithelial defects that can lead to significant pain and vision impairment. - It develops due to corneal abrasion from the giant papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva and direct corneal toxicity from inflammatory mediators. *Horner-Trantas spots* - These are **gelatinous aggregations** of epithelial cells and eosinophils that appear as white dots at the limbus, particularly evident at the superior limbus. - They are one of the **pathognomonic signs** of vernal conjunctivitis, indicating significant allergic inflammation. *Papillary hypertrophy* - Characterized by the development of **large, flattened papillae** (often described as "cobblestone" papillae) on the upper tarsal conjunctiva. - This hypertrophy is a result of chronic inflammation and proliferation of mast cells, eosinophils, and lymphocytes in the conjunctival stroma.
Question 3: Which of the following organisms can penetrate a normal intact cornea?
- A. Gonococcus (Correct Answer)
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Explanation: ***Gonococcus*** - *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is unique among bacteria in its ability to directly penetrate the **intact corneal epithelium**. - This characteristic makes it a highly virulent cause of **rapidly progressive corneal ulceration** and endophthalmitis, especially in neonates born to infected mothers. *Staphylococcus aureus* - *Staphylococcus aureus* typically requires some form of **corneal epithelial defect** (e.g., abrasion, foreign body) to invade and cause keratitis. - While it is a common cause of bacterial keratitis, it does not penetrate an **undamaged cornea**. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - Similar to *S. aureus*, *Streptococcus pneumoniae* usually needs a **breach in the corneal epithelium** to establish an infection. - It is a frequent cause of **bacterial conjunctivitis** and keratitis but is not known for invading an intact cornea. *Listeria monocytogenes* - *Listeria monocytogenes* is an important human pathogen but is primarily known for causing **meningitis, sepsis, and perinatal infections**. - It is not a common cause of bacterial keratitis, and there is no evidence to suggest it can penetrate an **intact corneal surface**.
Question 4: Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal light reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?
- A. Pseudostrabismus (Correct Answer)
- B. Exophoria (outward drift)
- C. Esophoria (inward drift)
- D. Accommodative esotropia
Explanation: ***Pseudostrabismus*** * The presence of **exaggerated epicanthal folds** can create the optical illusion of a child having misaligned eyes, even when the eyes are perfectly straight. * The normal **corneal light reflex** (Hirschberg test) confirms that the eyes are properly aligned, and the perceived "squint" is not a true strabismus. *Exophoria (outward drift)* * This condition involves a **tendency for the eyes to drift outwards**, which would be detected by specific cover/uncover tests. * An outward drift would usually result in an abnormal corneal light reflex, and the exaggerated epicanthal folds would not explain this type of misalignment. *Esophoria (inward drift)* * This is a **tendency for the eyes to drift inwards**, which would also be revealed by tests for phorias and often by an abnormal corneal reflex. * The clinical presentation points away from a true inward deviation, as the corneal reflex is normal. *Accommodative esotropia* * This is a **true inward turning of the eye** (strabismus) that is often linked to uncorrected farsightedness (hyperopia). * It would present with an **abnormal corneal light reflex** and would not be explained solely by epicanthal folds, as it involves actual ocular deviation.
Question 5: What is the most common orbital tumor in children?
- A. Nerve sheath tumor
- B. Hemangioma (Correct Answer)
- C. Lymphoma
- D. Meningioma
Explanation: ***Hemangioma*** - **Capillary hemangioma** is the **most common benign orbital tumor/mass** in children, typically presenting in the first few months of life. - It is characterized by **rapid growth during the first year**, followed by **spontaneous involution** (usually complete by age 5-7 years). - These lesions are composed of rapidly proliferating endothelial cells and can cause **proptosis, ptosis**, and, if large, **amblyopia** due to visual axis obstruction or induced astigmatism. - Management is often conservative (observation) unless vision-threatening, in which case systemic steroids or propranolol may be used. *Nerve sheath tumor* - **Optic nerve sheath meningiomas** and **schwannomas** are rare in children, typically presenting in older adults. - While they can cause visual impairment and proptosis, their incidence in the pediatric population is significantly lower than hemangiomas. *Lymphoma* - **Orbital lymphoma** is exceedingly rare in children and is typically a tumor of adulthood, often associated with systemic lymphoma. - When it does occur in children, it might be a manifestation of a more widespread lymphoproliferative disorder. *Meningioma* - **Meningiomas** generally arise from arachnoid cap cells and are less common in children than in adults. - In children, they are more often associated with **neurofibromatosis type 2** and tend to be more aggressive.
Question 6: What is the term for an abnormally eccentrically placed pupil?
- A. Polycoria
- B. Ectopia lentis
- C. Anisocoria
- D. Corectopia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Corectopia*** - **Corectopia** refers to an **abnormally eccentrically placed pupil**, meaning the pupil is displaced from its normal central position within the iris. - This condition can be **congenital** or acquired due to trauma, inflammation, or surgery. *Polycoria* - **Polycoria** is a rare congenital anomaly characterized by the presence of **multiple pupils** in a single iris. - Each pupil typically has its own independent sphincter muscle. *Anisocoria* - **Anisocoria** is the condition where the **pupils are of unequal size**, meaning one pupil is larger or smaller than the other. - This can be physiological (normal) or pathological, indicating underlying neurological or ocular issues. *Ectopia lentis* - **Ectopia lentis** refers to the **displacement or dislocation of the natural lens** of the eye from its normal position. - It is often associated with systemic conditions like **Marfan syndrome** or trauma.
Question 7: Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in -
- A. Nasal pole
- B. Superior pole
- C. Temporal pole
- D. Inferior pole (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inferior pole*** - The **inferior pole** of the optic disc typically has the broadest neuroretinal rim in healthy eyes. - This observation is often remembered by the "ISNT rule," where **I > S > N > T** (Inferior > Superior > Nasal > Temporal) describes the typical thickness of the neuroretinal rim. *Superior pole* - While the superior pole has a relatively thick neuroretinal rim, it is generally **thinner than the inferior rim**. - The superior rim is the second thickest based on the **ISNT rule**. *Nasal pole* - The nasal pole's neuroretinal rim is typically **thinner than both the inferior and superior poles**. - It ranks third in thickness according to the **ISNT rule**. *Temporal pole* - The temporal pole typically has the **thinnest neuroretinal rim**, making it the narrowest part of the disc. - This is due to the larger excavation of the optic cup temporally, accommodating the macular fibers.
Question 8: What condition is characterized by a salt and pepper fundus appearance in the retina?
- A. Congenital rubella
- B. Congenital toxoplasmosis
- C. Congenital histoplasmosis
- D. Congenital syphilis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Congenital syphilis*** - The **"salt and pepper" fundus** appearance is a classic ophthalmologic finding in congenital syphilis, resulting from diffuse pigmentary retinopathy. - This condition is caused by widespread pigmentary changes in the retina, affecting both the retinal pigment epithelium and neurosensory retina. - It represents chronic, bilateral, and symmetric chorioretinitis that is pathognomonic for congenital syphilis. *Congenital toxoplasmosis* - While it can cause chorioretinitis, congenital toxoplasmosis typically presents with **focal, destructive lesions** rather than diffuse "salt and pepper" pigmentary changes. - Classic ocular lesions are often described as a **"headlight in the fog"** or inactive, pigmented chorioretinal scars. *Congenital histoplasmosis* - Ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (OHS) is usually acquired, not congenital, and causes **discrete chorioretinal scars** ("histo spots") often in the macula or peripapillary region. - It does not result in a diffuse **"salt and pepper" fundus** appearance. *Congenital rubella* - Congenital rubella syndrome can cause pigmentary retinopathy, but the pattern is typically **patchy or mottled** rather than the classic "salt and pepper" appearance. - Other ocular findings include cataract, microphthalmos, and glaucoma.
Question 9: The 'headlight in fog' appearance is seen in which condition?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Toxocara
- C. Herpes
- D. Toxoplasmosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Toxoplasmosis*** - The "headlight in fog" appearance is a classic description of **chorioretinitis** caused by **congenital toxoplasmosis**. - It refers to an old, healed **retinal scar** (headlight) surrounded by active inflammation and **vitreous haze** (fog). *Syphilis* - Ocular syphilis can cause various presentations, including uveitis, retinitis, and optic neuropathy, but it does **not typically** present with the specific "headlight in fog" appearance. - Ocular lesions are often more diffuse or involve distinct **gummatous lesions**. *Toxocara* - Ocular toxocariasis often presents as a **granuloma** (either peripheral or macular) or as **endophthalmitis**, but not the characteristic "headlight in fog" pattern. - The lesions are usually a result of a direct larval migration and subsequent inflammatory reaction. *Herpes* - Herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) can cause **acute retinal necrosis** (ARN) or progressive outer retinal necrosis (PORN), presenting with widespread retinal whitening and vascular occlusion. - These conditions have distinct appearances, generally **lacking the central scar** with surrounding active inflammation seen in "headlight in fog."
Question 10: What visual disturbance is caused by an optic tract lesion?
- A. Marcus Gunn pupil
- B. Bilateral blindness
- C. Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (Correct Answer)
- D. Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia
Explanation: ***Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia*** - An **optic tract lesion** interrupts the nerve fibers originating from the contralateral nasal retina and the ipsilateral temporal retina, leading to **vision loss in the contralateral visual field** of both eyes. - This results in a defect where the patient cannot see objects on the **opposite side** of the body from the lesion. *Marcus Gunn pupil* - A **Marcus Gunn pupil**, also known as an **afferent pupillary defect**, indicates asymmetric disease of the **retina** or **optic nerve**, not specifically the optic tract. - It is characterized by paradoxical dilation of the affected pupil when light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. *Bilateral blindness* - **Bilateral blindness** typically results from severe damage to both **optic nerves**, the **optic chiasm**, or extensive bilateral lesions in the visual cortex. - An optic tract lesion affects only one side of the visual pathway posterior to the chiasm, thus not causing complete bilateral vision loss. *Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia* - **Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia** is not a standard neurological visual field defect. Visual field defects are usually described relative to the lesion side as contralateral or ipsilateral based on the specific anatomical location. - An optic tract lesion always produces a **contralateral homonymous hemianopsia** because optic tract fibers cross at the optic chiasm.