Which virus is known for its brick-shaped morphology?
Which cells are known to cause rosette formation with sheep red blood cells?
Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
Influenza virus culture is done on ?
Which of the following viruses is classified as a poxvirus?
Which of the following statements about trematodes is true?
Which component is considered the central part of the complement pathway?
Which of the following organisms does not enter through abrasions in the skin?
Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?
Colorado Tick fever is caused by:
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which virus is known for its brick-shaped morphology?
- A. Chickenpox
- B. Smallpox (Correct Answer)
- C. CMV
- D. EBV
Explanation: ***Smallpox*** - The **variola virus**, responsible for smallpox, is a type of **poxvirus** which characteristically exhibits a **brick-shaped** or ovoid morphology. - This distinctive shape is due to its **large, complex virion structure** containing a dumbbell-shaped core. *Chickenpox* - Chickenpox is caused by the **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**, which is a member of the **herpesviridae family**. - Herpesviruses are typically **spherical** with an icosahedral capsid. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is another member of the **herpesviridae family**, sharing the characteristic **spherical shape** with an icosahedral capsid. - Its morphology is not brick-shaped. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** is also a **herpesvirus** and thus possesses a **spherical, icosahedral capsid morphology**. - Its structure is distinct from the brick-shaped poxviruses.
Question 12: Which cells are known to cause rosette formation with sheep red blood cells?
- A. Monocytes
- B. T cells (Correct Answer)
- C. NK cells
- D. All types of T cells
Explanation: ***T cells*** - **T cells** are the classic cells known to form rosettes with sheep red blood cells, a phenomenon called **E-rosette formation** - This interaction is mediated by the **CD2 receptor** on human T cells binding to **CD58 (LFA-3)** on sheep red blood cells - E-rosette formation was historically used as a diagnostic test to identify and enumerate T cells before the advent of flow cytometry - This is a characteristic feature of **mature T cells** and was widely used in immunology laboratories *NK cells* - **NK cells** do NOT typically form rosettes with sheep red blood cells - NK cells lack the specific CD2-mediated interaction required for classical E-rosette formation - NK cells are identified by other markers such as CD16 and CD56, and by their ability to kill target cells without prior sensitization *Monocytes* - **Monocytes** do not form rosettes with sheep red blood cells - Their primary functions include phagocytosis, antigen presentation, and cytokine production - They are identified by surface markers like **CD14** and their characteristic morphology (large size, kidney-shaped nucleus) *All types of T cells* - While this option is technically correct since all mature T cells express CD2 and can form E-rosettes, the more conventional answer is simply **"T cells"** - Both CD4+ helper T cells and CD8+ cytotoxic T cells possess the CD2 receptor and can participate in rosette formation - The distinction between "T cells" and "All types of T cells" is subtle, but "T cells" is the standard textbook answer
Question 13: Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
- A. Taenia solium
- B. Strongyloides stercoralis (Correct Answer)
- C. Diphyllobothrium latum
- D. Trichinella spiralis
Explanation: ***Strongyloides stercoralis*** - *Strongyloides stercoralis* is unique among intestinal nematodes in that it can produce **rhabditiform larvae** in the stool. These larvae can then mature into infective **filariform larvae** either in the soil or within the host. - The presence of **rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool samples** is a key diagnostic feature differentiating *Strongyloides* from other parasitic infections that typically shed eggs. *Taenia solium* - *Taenia solium* (pork tapeworm) is transmitted by **ingesting undercooked pork** containing cysticerci. - The parasite is diagnosed by finding **eggs or proglottids in stool**, not rhabditiform larvae. *Diphyllobothrium latum* - *Diphyllobothrium latum* (fish tapeworm) infects humans upon consumption of **undercooked or raw freshwater fish**. - Diagnosis is made by identifying characteristic **operculated eggs in stool samples**, which do not contain rhabditiform larvae. *Trichinella spiralis* - *Trichinella spiralis* causes trichinosis, usually acquired by eating **undercooked meat infected with encysted larvae**. - This parasite is typically diagnosed by **muscle biopsy** showing encysted larvae or serological tests, as it does not produce rhabditiform larvae in stool.
Question 14: Influenza virus culture is done on ?
- A. Chorioallantoic membrane
- B. Allantoic cavity (Correct Answer)
- C. Yolk sac
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Allantoic cavity*** - The **allantoic cavity** of embryonated chicken eggs is the standard and most effective site for isolating and propagating **influenza viruses** for vaccine production and research. - This cavity provides an optimal environment for viral replication, particularly yielding high titers of **hemagglutinin**, a key influenza antigen. *Chorioallantoic membrane* - While embryonated eggs are used for virus culture, the **chorioallantoic membrane (CAM)** is primarily used for cultivating viruses that produce **pocks** (visible lesions), such as Vaccinia and Herpes Simplex Virus. - Influenza virus growth on the CAM is less efficient and typically doesn't produce distinct pocks, making it unsuitable for high-yield propagation compared to the allantoic cavity. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** of embryonated eggs is ideal for growing viruses or bacteria that require a **lipid-rich environment** and replicate intracellularly, such as Chlamydia or Rickettsia. - It is not the preferred site for influenza virus isolation or proliferation due to suboptimal conditions for viral replication and lower viral yields. *All of the options* - While all these sites are components of an embryonated chicken egg, each serves as a host for different types of microorganisms or for specific purposes in virology. - For **influenza virus culture**, the **allantoic cavity** is the specifically utilized site for optimal growth and high viral yield.
Question 15: Which of the following viruses is classified as a poxvirus?
- A. Variola (Correct Answer)
- B. Coxsackie
- C. ECHO
- D. HSV
Explanation: ***Variola virus*** - **Variola virus** is the causative agent of **smallpox**, a historically significant and highly contagious disease. - It belongs to the **Orthopoxvirus** genus within the **Poxviridae family**, characterized by its large, brick-shaped virion and dsDNA genome. *Coxsackie virus* - **Coxsackieviruses** are part of the **Picornaviridae family**, specifically the **Enterovirus** genus. - They are known to cause a range of diseases including **hand-foot-and-mouth disease**, myocarditis, and aseptic meningitis, and are much smaller than poxviruses. *ECHO virus* - **Echoviruses** (Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan viruses) are also members of the **Picornaviridae family** and the **Enterovirus** genus. - They are associated with diseases such as **aseptic meningitis**, gastroenteritis, and respiratory infections, completely distinct from poxviruses. *HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)* - **Herpes Simplex Viruses** belong to the **Herpesviridae family**, characterized by a **linear dsDNA genome** and an enveloped icosahedral capsid. - They cause diseases like **oral and genital herpes** and are structurally and genetically distinct from poxviruses.
Question 16: Which of the following statements about trematodes is true?
- A. Segmented
- B. Anus present
- C. Body cavity present
- D. Two hosts required (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Two hosts required (Correct)*** - Trematodes typically require at least **two hosts** to complete their life cycle: an intermediate host (usually a **snail**) and a definitive host (a vertebrate). - This complex lifecycle involving multiple hosts is a characteristic feature of **flukes**. - This is a fundamental distinguishing feature that separates trematodes from some other helminths. *Segmented (Incorrect)* - Trematodes (flukes) have **unsegmented, leaf-shaped or cylindrical bodies**, unlike cestodes (tapeworms) which are segmented. - The absence of body segmentation is a key morphological distinction from other helminths. *Anus present (Incorrect)* - Trematodes have an **incomplete digestive system** with a mouth and an esophagus, but **no anus**. - Waste products are expelled back through the **mouth**. - This blind-ending gut is characteristic of the class Trematoda. *Body cavity present (Incorrect)* - Trematodes are **acoelomates**, meaning they lack a true fluid-filled body cavity (coelom). - Their internal organs are embedded in **parenchymatous tissue** filling the space between body wall and organs.
Question 17: Which component is considered the central part of the complement pathway?
- A. C1 (complement component 1)
- B. C3 (complement component 3) (Correct Answer)
- C. C2 (complement component 2)
- D. C5 (complement component 5)
Explanation: ***C3*** - **C3** is considered the central component because all three major pathways of complement activation (classical, alternative, and lectin) converge at the point of **C3 activation**. - Its cleavage product, **C3b**, is crucial for opsonization, formation of the C5 convertase, and initiating the assembly of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**. *C1 (complement component 1)* - **C1** is the initial component of the **classical complement pathway** but does not play a direct role in the alternative or lectin pathways. - Its primary function is to bind to **antibody-antigen complexes** or directly to pathogens to activate C4 and C2. *C2 (complement component 2)* - **C2** is a component of the **classical** and **lectin pathways**, acting as a substrate for C1s and MASP to form the C3 convertase. - It is not involved in the initial activation of the **alternative pathway**. *C5 (complement component 5)* - **C5** is activated downstream of C3 and is a key component in the formation of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**. - While critical for pathogen lysis, its activation is dependent on the prior cleavage of **C3** into C3b.
Question 18: Which of the following organisms does not enter through abrasions in the skin?
- A. E rhusiopathiae
- B. E corrodens
- C. C hominis (Correct Answer)
- D. C violaceum
Explanation: ***Chryseobacterium hominis*** - **Chryseobacterium hominis** is primarily a cause of **nosocomial infections**, particularly in immunocompromised patients, and typically enters the body via **medical devices or respiratory route**, not skin abrasions. - It is known to colonize humid environments and medical equipment, leading to **bacteremia**, **meningitis**, or **pneumonia**. - This organism is transmitted through contaminated medical equipment, ventilators, or via the respiratory tract, distinguishing it from the other options. *Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae* - This organism is a common cause of **erysipelas** or **erysipeloid** in humans, often contracted through contact with infected animals or animal products via **minor skin abrasions**. - The infection typically presents as a **painful, violaceous, spreading skin lesion** at the site of inoculation. - Common in fish handlers, butchers, and veterinarians who sustain occupational skin injuries. *Eikenella corrodens* - **Eikenella corrodens** is a gram-negative rod that is part of the normal oral flora and often causes infections following **human bites** or **fist fights** (clenched-fist injuries), where it enters through **skin abrasions or breaks**. - It is notorious for causing **osteomyelitis** and **abscesses** subsequent to these types of injuries. *Chromobacterium violaceum* - **Chromobacterium violaceum** is a rare but highly pathogenic bacterium found in soil and water in tropical and subtropical regions, entering the body through **breaks in the skin**, such as cuts or abrasions. - Infections are severe and can lead to **sepsis**, **multiple organ abscesses**, and a high mortality rate due to its production of **violacein** and other toxins.
Question 19: Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?
- A. Leprosy (Correct Answer)
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Trachoma
- D. Tetanus
Explanation: **Leprosy** - Leprosy, caused by *Mycobacterium leprae*, is classified by the **WHO** into **paucibacillary (PB)** and **multibacillary (MB)** forms based on bacterial load and number of skin lesions. - **Multibacillary leprosy** is defined as having more than 5 skin lesions with positive skin smears, requiring a longer treatment regimen (12 months of multidrug therapy with rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine). - This classification is specific to **leprosy** and is crucial for determining appropriate treatment duration and drug combinations. *Tuberculosis* - Tuberculosis is classified by **anatomical location** (pulmonary vs. extrapulmonary), **drug susceptibility** (drug-sensitive vs. drug-resistant), or **smear status** (smear-positive vs. smear-negative). - The term **'multibacillary'** is not used in TB classification, making this an incorrect option. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a chronic **keratoconjunctivitis** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*, classified by **clinical stages** (TF, TI, TS, TT, CO) according to the WHO simplified grading system. - The paucibacillary/multibacillary classification does **not apply** to trachoma. *Tetanus* - Tetanus is a **toxin-mediated disease** caused by *Clostridium tetani*, manifesting as muscle spasms and lockjaw. - Classification is based on **clinical severity** (localized, generalized, cephalic, neonatal), not bacterial load, making the term 'multibacillary' inapplicable.
Question 20: Colorado Tick fever is caused by:
- A. Coronaviridae
- B. Filoviridae
- C. Caliciviridae
- D. Reoviridae (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reoviridae*** - Colorado Tick Fever (CTF) is caused by the **Colorado Tick Fever Virus (CTFV)**, which belongs to the genus **Coltivirus** within the family **Reoviridae**. - Reoviridae viruses are **non-enveloped**, double-stranded RNA viruses. *Filoviridae* - This family includes viruses like **Ebola virus** and **Marburg virus**, which cause severe hemorrhagic fevers. - They are **enveloped**, negative-sense single-stranded RNA viruses, distinct from the CTFV. *Coronaviridae* - This family includes viruses like **SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)** and SARS-CoV, which cause respiratory illnesses. - They are **enveloped**, positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses, structurally different from CTFV. *Caliciviridae* - This family includes viruses like **Norovirus**, a common cause of acute gastroenteritis (viral stomach flu). - They are **non-enveloped**, positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses and do not cause tick-borne illnesses.