NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Investigation of choice in pheochromocytoma is:

Urinary catecholamines. ***Urinary catecholamines*** - Measurement of **24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines** is the initial **biochemical test of choice**. - These biochemical tests are preferred over plasma levels due to the **episodic release** of hormones from a pheochromocytoma, which can lead to high false-negative rates in single plasma measurements. *CT scan* - While a **CT scan** is a crucial **imaging modality** for localizing a pheochromocytoma once the biochemical diagnosis is established [1], it is not the *initial* diagnostic investigation. - Imaging should be performed only after **biochemical confirmation** to avoid unnecessary investigations of incidental adrenal masses [1]. *MIBG scan* - An **MIBG scan** (metaiodobenzylguanidine scan) is a **functional imaging study** used primarily for **localizing metastatic pheochromocytomas** [1] or for cases where CT/MRI is equivocal. - It is not the initial investigation but rather a **secondary imaging test** [1]. *MRI Scan* - **MRI** is an alternative **imaging modality** to CT for localizing pheochromocytomas [1], especially in pregnant women or when radiation exposure is a concern. - Like CT, it serves as a **localization tool** after biochemical confirmation, not the diagnostic test itself.

Q: Which of the following medications is not typically used in the treatment of malignant malaria?

Quinolone. ***Quinolone*** - **Quinolone** antibiotics, while broad-spectrum, are not typically used as primary antimalarial agents due to limited efficacy against *Plasmodium falciparum* and potential for resistance. - Their use in malaria treatment is generally restricted to specific co-infections rather than direct antimalarial efficacy. *Quinine* - **Quinine** has been a cornerstone of severe malaria treatment for many years, especially in regions with limited access to newer artemisinin derivatives. - It works by interfering with the parasite's ability to detoxify heme, thus killing the parasites. *Doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is an effective antimalarial, particularly as a prophylactic agent and in combination therapy for uncomplicated malaria or as an alternative for severe malaria when other agents are contraindicated. - It inhibits **protein synthesis** in the parasite. *Artesunate* - **Artesunate** is the recommended first-line treatment for severe malaria due to its rapid action and potent parasiticidal effects. - It is an **artemisinin derivative** that produces free radicals toxic to the parasite.

Q: What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). ***Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)*** - A large PDA results in a significant **left-to-right shunt**, increasing pulmonary blood flow and leading to **pulmonary overcirculation**. [1] - This increased workload on the heart, particularly the left atrium and ventricle, can lead to **ventricular dysfunction** and ultimately CHF. [1] *Eisenmenger syndrome* - While a severe complication of an untreated large PDA, it represents a **late stage** where the left-to-right shunt has reversed due to **pulmonary hypertension**. [1] - It is not the *most common* initial complication, as CHF often develops earlier in the disease progression. *Infective endocarditis* - This is a potential long-term complication of a PDA, especially if untreated, due to the **turbulent blood flow** across the ductus. - However, it is less common than CHF, which results directly from the hemodynamic burden imposed by a large shunt. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congestive Heart Failure** is indeed a very common and significant complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus.

Q: Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?

Dorsolumbar. ***94ed055d-c7da-4d18-a2fd-52720dfe8b6e*** - The **dorsolumbar (thoracolumbar)** region is the most common site of **spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)** [1] due to its high vascularity, facilitating hematogenous spread. - **Spinal tuberculosis** typically affects the vertebral bodies, leading to their destruction, kyphosis (angular deformity), and potentially neurological deficits [1]. *aebdfe6c-98dc-4073-892f-bb24d047bab4* - The **sacral** region can be affected by **tuberculosis**, but it is considerably less common than the thoracolumbar region. - Involvement of the sacrum is often associated with **direct extension** from adjacent structures, such as the sacroiliac joint, rather than primary vertebral involvement. *15c1feef-e3ca-496f-a180-127d52b77bfa* - **Cervical spine tuberculosis** is relatively rare, accounting for a small percentage of all spinal tuberculosis cases. - While possible, it presents with specific challenges due to the proximity of vital neurological and vascular structures. *d05d4d13-bb83-4f26-aa2d-c9c0203d299c* - The **lumbosacral region** (L5-S1) can be involved in **tuberculosis**, but it is less frequently affected than the thoracolumbar region. - While the lumbar spine is a common site, the entire lumbosacral region as a single entity is not the most common spot for spinal TB.

Q: Oculoorogenital ulcers are associated with which of the following conditions?

Behcet's disease. ***Behcet's disease*** - This condition is characterized by **recurrent oral and genital ulcers**, along with **ocular inflammation** (e.g., uveitis), perfectly matching the "Oculoorogenital ulcers" description. - It is a **chronic, relapsing inflammatory disease** of unknown etiology involving vasculitis affecting various organ systems. *Lichen planus* - This is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the **skin, hair, nails, and mucous membranes**. - While it can cause oral lesions, it typically presents as **purple, polygonal, pruritic papules** on the skin and does not cause genital ulcers or significant ocular involvement like Behcet's. *Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)* - SLE is a **systemic autoimmune disease** with diverse manifestations, including skin rashes, arthritis, and internal organ involvement. - Oral ulcers can occur, but **genital ulcers and severe ocular inflammation** as a prominent triad are not typical diagnostic features of SLE. *Psoriasis* - This is a common **chronic inflammatory skin disease** characterized by well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales. - Psoriasis primarily affects the skin and joints, and **does not typically present with oral, genital, or ocular ulcers** as described.

Q: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?

Scleroderma. ***Scleroderma*** - **Scleroderma** (systemic sclerosis) can cause characteristic changes in the distal phalanges, specifically **acro-osteolysis**, leading to resorption of the **distal tufts** [1]. - This is often associated with **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **digital ischemia**, and **calcinosis**, leading to severe circulatory compromise in the digits [1]. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** causes bone resorption due to increased parathyroid hormone, primarily affecting the **subperiosteal bone** (especially in the radial aspect of the middle phalanges), leading to a "lace-like" appearance on X-ray. - While it causes bone resorption, **distal phalanx tuft resorption** is not its most common or prominent skeletal feature compared to scleroderma. *Reiter's syndrome* - **Reiter's syndrome** (now known as reactive arthritis) is an inflammatory arthropathy usually involving large joints of the lower extremities in an **asymmetric** pattern. - It does not typically cause **resorption of the distal phalanx**; instead, it's associated with enthesitis, dactylitis, and periostitis. *Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)* - **Paget's disease** is characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged, deformed bones that are prone to fracture, predominantly affecting the **pelvis, spine, skull, and long bones**. - It causes areas of localized bone destruction and excessive bone formation, but **distal phalanx resorption** is not a feature of this condition.

Q: In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

S1 radiculopathy. ***S1 radiculopathy*** - The **H-reflex (Hoffmann reflex)** primarily assesses the integrity of the **S1 nerve root** and the **tibial nerve** pathway. - A diminished or absent H-reflex is a sensitive indicator of **S1 radiculopathy**, often correlating with **Achilles reflex loss** [1]. *L3 radiculopathy* - **L3 radiculopathy** typically affects the **quadriceps muscle** and the **patellar reflex** [1]. - The H-reflex is not a primary diagnostic tool for isolated L3 nerve root involvement. *L4 radiculopathy* - **L4 radiculopathy** usually presents with weakness in **tibialis anterior** and altered sensation over the medial leg/foot [1]. - While it can sometimes impact the patellar reflex, the H-reflex is not the most direct or specific measure for L4 involvement. *L5 radiculopathy* - **L5 radiculopathy** often leads to weakness in **foot dorsiflexion** and **toe extension**, with sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot [1]. - It does not directly involve the reflex arc assessed by the H-reflex.

Q: Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to?

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor. ***Deficiency of C1 inhibitor*** - **Hereditary angioedema (HAE)** is caused by a genetic deficiency or dysfunction of the **C1 esterase inhibitor (C1-INH)** protein. - C1-INH normally regulates the **complement system**, kinin system (mediating **bradykinin** release), and coagulation pathways, and its deficiency leads to uncontrolled activation and excessive bradykinin production, causing angioedema. *Deficiency of NADPH oxidase* - A deficiency in **NADPH oxidase** is associated with **Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)**, a primary immunodeficiency characterized by recurrent bacterial and fungal infections due to impaired phagocytic oxidative burst. - It does not cause angioedema, which involves fluid extravasation rather than impaired microbial killing. *Deficiency of MPO* - **Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency** typically leads to mild to moderate impairment in the killing of certain microorganisms by phagocytes but is often asymptomatic or causes only recurrent candidal infections. - It is not linked to the pathogenesis of angioedema, which involves dysregulation of vasoactive peptides. *Deficiency of properdin* - A deficiency in **properdin** affects the **alternative pathway of the complement system**, increasing susceptibility to **Neisseria infections**. - While properdin is part of the complement system, its deficiency does not directly lead to the uncontrolled production of bradykinin, which is the primary mediator in angioedema due to C1-INH deficiency.

Question 1

Investigation of choice in pheochromocytoma is:

Accepted Answer

Urinary catecholamines

Answer

CT scan

Answer

MIBG scan

Answer

MRI Scan

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic of Yellow-nail syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Pleural effusion and lymphedema, associated with discolored nails

Answer

Knee joint effusion and lymphedema, associated with discolored nails

Answer

Pericardial effusion and lymphedema, associated with discolored nails

Answer

Peritoneal effusion and lymphedema, associated with discolored nails

Question 3

Which of the following medications is not typically used in the treatment of malignant malaria?

Accepted Answer

Quinolone

Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Artesunate

Answer

Quinine

Question 4

What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Accepted Answer

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

Answer

Eisenmenger syndrome

Answer

Infective endocarditis

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?

Accepted Answer

Dorsolumbar

Answer

Sacral

Answer

Lumbosacral

Answer

Cervical

Question 6

Oculoorogenital ulcers are associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Behcet's disease

Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer

Psoriasis

Question 7

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?

Accepted Answer

Scleroderma

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Reiter's syndrome

Answer

Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)

Question 8

Which of the following statements about lepromatous leprosy is true?

Accepted Answer

Lepromatous leprosy typically presents with multiple cutaneous lesions.

Answer

Thickened peripheral nerves are a common feature.

Answer

Erythema nodosum leprosum occurs in less than 50% of cases.

Answer

The lepromin test is usually negative or weakly positive.

Question 9

In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

Accepted Answer

S1 radiculopathy

Answer

L3 radiculopathy

Answer

L4 radiculopathy

Answer

L5 radiculopathy

Question 10

Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to?

Accepted Answer

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor

Answer

Deficiency of NADPH oxidase

Answer

Deficiency of MPO

Answer

Deficiency of properdin

NEET-PG 2012 — Internal Medicine