Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg positive. The patient has -
Meningitis with rash is seen in -
Tabes dorsalis is seen in -
HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started within?
An 86-year-old lady presented with severe constipation. She was a known hypertensive on medications for 10 years. In clinic, her BP was 157/98 mm Hg with a heart rate of 58/min. On taking her BP in the supine position, it was found to be 90/60 mm Hg. She had a recent history of depression. She is taking atenolol, thiazide, imipramine, haloperidol, and docusate. What is the next best step in the management?
What is the most common cause of ophthalmoplegia in adults?
A 45-year-old patient presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral pedal edema. On examination, there is elevated JVP, S3 gallop, and hepatomegaly. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?
Ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
What is the primary electrolyte found in Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) at a concentration of 75 mEq/L?
Which visual disturbance is commonly associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg positive. The patient has -
- A. Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity
- C. Acute on chronic hepatitis
- D. Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity (not acute)
Explanation: ***Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity*** - The presence of **HBsAg** (hepatitis B surface antigen) indicates active infection, while **IgM anti-HBc** (IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen) is a marker of recent or acute infection [1]. - **HBeAg** (hepatitis B e-antigen) positivity signifies active viral replication and a high likelihood of infectivity [1]. *Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity (not acute)* - **Chronic hepatitis B** is characterized by the presence of **HBsAg for more than six months**, but **IgM anti-HBc** would typically be negative; instead, **IgG anti-HBc** would be positive [1]. - **Low infectivity** would be indicated by the absence of **HBeAg**, replaced by **anti-HBe** (antibody to HBeAg) [1]. *Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity* - This diagnosis would show positive **HBsAg and HBeAg**, but the absence of **IgM anti-HBc** (presence of **IgG anti-HBc** instead) would distinguish it from acute infection [1]. - The presence of **IgM anti-HBc** is a crucial marker for an acute phase of hepatitis B rather than chronic. *Acute on chronic hepatitis* - This scenario would involve a patient with pre-existing **chronic hepatitis B** (positive HBsAg, IgG anti-HBc) experiencing a new acute flare-up, which could involve a resurgence of **HBeAg** or a new acute viral insult. - While **HBsAg** and **HBeAg** would be positive, the key differentiator would be the presence of both **IgM anti-HBc** (indicating the acute component) and **IgG anti-HBc** (indicating the chronic component), which is not fully described here to confirm acute on chronic.
Question 32: Meningitis with rash is seen in -
- A. Neisseria meningitidis (Correct Answer)
- B. H. influenzae
- C. Strepto. agalactae
- D. Pneumococcus
Explanation: **Neisseria meningitidis** - **Meningococcal meningitis** is classically associated with an acute onset of fever, headache, stiff neck, and a characteristic **petechial or purpuric rash** [1]. - The rash is due to widespread **vasculitis** and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by the bacteria. *H. influenzae* - While *H. influenzae* type b (Hib) was a major cause of bacterial meningitis before vaccination, it typically does not cause a *rash*. - Meningitis caused by *H. influenzae* presents with fever, headache, stiff neck, and altered mental status without dermatological manifestations. *Strepto. agalactiae* - *Streptococcus agalactiae* (Group B Strep) is a common cause of meningitis in **neonates** and infants. - It usually presents with non-specific symptoms like fever, lethargy, and poor feeding, and a rash is not a typical feature of GBS meningitis. *Pneumococcus* - *Streptococcus pneumoniae* (Pneumococcus) is another leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults and children [1]. - Symptoms include fever, headache, stiff neck, and altered mental status, but a cutaneous rash is not characteristic of pneumococcal meningitis [1].
Question 33: Tabes dorsalis is seen in -
- A. Tertiary syphilis (Correct Answer)
- B. Primary syphilis
- C. Latent syphilis
- D. Secondary syphilis
Explanation: ***Tertiary syphilis*** - **Tabes dorsalis** is a neurological manifestation of **tertiary syphilis**, characterized by demyelination and degeneration of the posterior columns of the spinal cord [1]. - This leads to symptoms such as **ataxia**, **loss of proprioception**, **lightning pains**, and **Argyll-Robertson pupils**. *Primary syphilis* - Characterized by the presence of a **chancre**, a painless ulcer, at the site of infection [1]. - This stage typically occurs 3-90 days after exposure and is not associated with neurological complications of tabes dorsalis. *Latent syphilis* - This is a period during which there are **no clinical signs or symptoms** of syphilis, although the infection persists. - It can be early or late, but it is not the stage where overt neurological complications like tabes dorsalis arise [1]. *Secondary syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **generalized mucocutaneous rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and **condylomata lata** [1]. - While it can involve various organ systems, it does not typically include the severe neurological degeneration seen in tabes dorsalis.
Question 34: HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started within?
- A. 1-2 hrs
- B. 14 hrs
- C. 18 hrs
- D. 72 hrs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***72 hrs*** - **Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** aims to prevent HIV infection after potential exposure and should ideally be initiated as soon as possible, but no later than **72 hours** after exposure [1]. - Starting PEP within this window significantly increases its effectiveness in preventing HIV seroconversion. *1-2 hrs* - While initiating PEP as soon as possible is crucial, stating it must be within **1-2 hours** can be misleading as the window of effectiveness extends beyond this. - This timeframe might be an ideal, but not the absolute crucial limit for efficacy. *14 hrs* - This timeframe is **too restrictive** for the recommended window for PEP initiation. - Missing the opportunity within **14 hours** does not negate the effectiveness of PEP if started within the broader 72-hour window. *18 hrs* - Similar to **14 hours**, **18 hours** is an unnecessarily strict limit for PEP initiation. - Guidelines universally support starting PEP up to **72 hours** post-exposure for optimal benefit [1].
Question 35: An 86-year-old lady presented with severe constipation. She was a known hypertensive on medications for 10 years. In clinic, her BP was 157/98 mm Hg with a heart rate of 58/min. On taking her BP in the supine position, it was found to be 90/60 mm Hg. She had a recent history of depression. She is taking atenolol, thiazide, imipramine, haloperidol, and docusate. What is the next best step in the management?
- A. Change atenolol and thiazide to calcium channel blocker and ACE inhibitor and add bisacodyl for constipation
- B. Change imipramine and haloperidol to fluoxetine and risperidone and add bisacodyl for constipation (Correct Answer)
- C. Only add bisacodyl for constipation and continue rest of the medications
- D. Discontinue all her medications and start her on steroids
Explanation: ***Change imipramine and haloperidol to fluoxetine and risperidone and add bisacodyl for constipation*** - The patient's presentation with **severe constipation** and **orthostatic hypotension** (supine BP 90/60 mmHg from 157/98 mmHg) strongly suggests drug-induced side effects. Older people are especially sensitive to drugs that can cause postural hypotension, and for any presenting problem in old age, the possibility that medication is a contributory factor should be considered [1]. Both **imipramine** (a tricyclic antidepressant) and **haloperidol** (an antipsychotic) have significant **anticholinergic effects**, which can cause severe constipation and worsen orthostatic hypotension. - Switching to **fluoxetine** (an SSRI with fewer anticholinergic effects) and **risperidone** (an atypical antipsychotic with less anticholinergic burden than haloperidol) would mitigate these side effects. Postural hypotension in older adults is defined as a drop in blood pressure of >20 mmHg systolic or >10 mmHg diastolic upon standing [2]. Adding **bisacodyl**, a stimulant laxative, directly addresses her severe constipation. *Change atenolol and thiazide to calcium channel blocker and ACE inhibitor and add bisacodyl for constipation* - While atenolol and thiazide can contribute to orthostatic hypotension, the primary drivers of her severe constipation and marked anticholinergic side effects are likely **imipramine** and **haloperidol**. - Changing the antihypertensive medications alone would not adequately address the severe constipation or the underlying pharmacological cause of her symptoms. *Only add bisacodyl for constipation and continue rest of the medications* - Simply adding a **laxative** without addressing the underlying drug-induced issues would not resolve the root cause of her severe constipation and orthostatic hypotension. Failure to recognise ADRs may lead to the use of further drugs to treat the problem, making matters worse [1]. - Continuing **imipramine** and **haloperidol** would perpetuate the significant anticholinergic side effects, leading to ongoing symptoms and potential complications. *Discontinue all her medications and start her on steroids* - **Discontinuing all medications** without a clear rationale is generally unsafe, especially in an elderly patient with multiple comorbidities like hypertension and depression. - **Steroids** are not indicated for constipation or orthostatic hypotension in this context and could introduce a new set of serious side effects.
Question 36: What is the most common cause of ophthalmoplegia in adults?
- A. Cranial nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Myasthenia gravis
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Trauma
Explanation: ***Cranial nerve palsy*** - **Cranial nerve palsies**, particularly those affecting cranial nerves III, IV, or VI, are the most frequent causes of isolated ophthalmoplegia in adults [1]. - They can result from various etiologies like **ischemia**, **compression**, or **inflammation**, directly impairing the nerves responsible for eye movement [1]. *Myasthenia gravis* - While it frequently causes **ocular symptoms** (ptosis and diplopia), it typically presents with **fluctuating weakness** that worsens with sustained effort [1]. - It's a neuromuscular junction disorder, not a primary cranial nerve issue, and often affects other muscle groups beyond the eyes. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetic ophthalmoplegia** is a specific type of cranial nerve palsy (often CN III or VI) caused by microvascular ischemia. - While common in diabetics, it is a *cause* of cranial nerve palsy, not the overarching most common cause of ophthalmoplegia itself. *Trauma* - **Trauma** can certainly cause ophthalmoplegia, often due to direct damage to **extraocular muscles**, **orbital fractures**, or **cranial nerve injury**. - However, in the general adult population, non-traumatic cranial nerve palsies are more frequently encountered as the cause of ophthalmoplegia.
Question 37: A 45-year-old patient presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral pedal edema. On examination, there is elevated JVP, S3 gallop, and hepatomegaly. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?
- A. DALEY
- B. HALE (Correct Answer)
- C. OALY
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***HALE*** - This acronym stands for **Heart-failure Associated Lung Edema**. The symptoms of **progressive dyspnea**, **orthopnea**, **bilateral pedal edema**, **elevated JVP**, **S3 gallop**, and **hepatomegaly** are classic signs of **congestive heart failure** leading to fluid overload and pulmonary congestion [1]. - The pathophysiology involves the heart's inability to pump blood effectively, causing a buildup of pressure in the pulmonary and systemic circulations, leading to the observed symptoms [1]. *DALEY* - This is not a recognized acronym in medical pathophysiology. The symptoms presented are strongly indicative of a specific cardiovascular condition. - There is no clinical scenario where "DALEY" would accurately describe the underlying pathophysiology of dyspnea, edema, and heart failure signs. *OALY* - This is not a recognized acronym in medical pathophysiology. The presented clinical picture requires a well-established and specific pathophysiological explanation. - Using an unrecognized term would not provide an accurate or helpful description of the patient's condition. *None of the options* - The acronym HALE (Heart-failure Associated Lung Edema) accurately captures the core pathophysiology evident from the patient's symptoms and signs. - Given the strong clinical presentation of congestive heart failure with pulmonary and systemic congestion, one of the provided options *does* accurately describe the situation.
Question 38: Ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. 3rd nerve palsy
- B. Wernicke encephalopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Myasthenia gravis
- D. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
Explanation: ***Wernicke encephalopathy*** - This condition is characterized by the classic triad of **ataxia**, **nystagmus**, and **ophthalmoplegia** (often presenting as external ophthalmoplegia), alongside confusion [2]. - It results from a **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency** [2], [3], commonly seen in chronic alcoholics or individuals with severe malnutrition. *Myasthenia gravis* - This is an **autoimmune disorder** affecting the neuromuscular junction, leading to fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity [1]. - While it can cause **ophthalmoplegia** (especially ptosis and diplopia), it does not typically present with ataxia or nystagmus. *3rd nerve palsy* - A **third nerve palsy** specifically affects the oculomotor nerve, causing a constellation of symptoms including ptosis, pupillary dilation, and inability to move the eye up, down, or medially. - While it causes **ophthalmoplegia** affecting one eye, it does not typically cause nystagmus or ataxia. *Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia* - This is a mitochondrial disorder characterized by **slowly progressive weakness** of the extraocular muscles, leading to bilateral ptosis and limitation of eye movements. - It causes a specific type of **ophthalmoplegia** but is not typically associated with nystagmus or prominent ataxia.
Question 39: What is the primary electrolyte found in Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) at a concentration of 75 mEq/L?
- A. Sodium (Correct Answer)
- B. Potassium
- C. Glucose
- D. Chloride
Explanation: ***Sodium*** - The primary electrolyte in **Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS)** is **sodium**, which is crucial for replacing losses due to diarrhea and facilitating water absorption in the intestines [1]. - The standard ORS formulation, recommended by the WHO, contains **75 mEq/L of sodium** to effectively rehydrate individuals with acute watery diarrhea [1]. *Potassium* - While **potassium** is an essential electrolyte found in ORS, its concentration is typically lower than sodium, usually around **20 mEq/L**. - Potassium helps replenish intracellular losses and supports normal cellular function, but it is not the primary electrolyte at the 75 mEq/L concentration. *Glucose* - **Glucose** is a crucial component of ORS, but it is a sugar, not an electrolyte. - Its role is to facilitate the co-transport of **sodium and water** across the intestinal wall, enhancing fluid absorption, but it does not contribute to the electrolyte concentration in mEq/L [1]. *Chloride* - **Chloride** is an electrolyte present in ORS, primarily to balance the charge of **sodium** and prevent hyynatremia. - Its concentration is typically around **65 mEq/L**, making it slightly less concentrated than sodium but still vital for maintaining electrolyte balance.
Question 40: Which visual disturbance is commonly associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency?
- A. Centrocaecal scotoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Binasal hemianopia
- C. Constriction of peripheral vision
- D. Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation: No relevant citations could be added to the original explanation because the provided references did not specifically address the association between Vitamin B12 deficiency and centrocaecal scotoma. ***Centrocaecal scotoma*** - **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can lead to optic neuropathy, which often manifests as a **centrocaecal scotoma**, affecting central and paracentral vision. - This visual impairment is due to **demyelination of the optic nerve fibers** caused by the deficiency. *Binasal hemianopia* - This type of visual field defect is rare and typically caused by lesions that compress the uncrossed retinal nerve fibers, such as **bilateral internal carotid artery aneurysms** or **bilateral optic nerve disease**. - It does not directly correlate with **Vitamin B12 deficiency**. *Constriction of peripheral vision* - **Peripheral vision loss** is associated with conditions like **glaucoma** or advanced **retinitis pigmentosa**. - It is not a characteristic visual disturbance of **Vitamin B12 deficiency**. *Bitemporal hemianopia* - This visual field defect is commonly caused by compression of the **optic chiasm**, most often due to a **pituitary adenoma**. - It results in loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields and is not linked to **Vitamin B12 deficiency**.