A pregnant woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be:
Hypophosphatemia is seen in:
Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA)?
What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?
Anomic aphasia is due to defect in
Neurofibromatosis true all, except-
Which of the following provide protection against malaria except
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A pregnant woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be:
- A. Radioiodine therapy
- B. Total thyroidectomy
- C. Carbimazole parenteral
- D. Propylthiouracil oral (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Propylthiouracil oral*** - **Propylthiouracil (PTU)** is the preferred antithyroid drug during the **first trimester** of pregnancy due to a lower risk of teratogenicity compared to methimazole/carbimazole [1]. - It works by inhibiting both the synthesis of thyroid hormones and the peripheral conversion of **T4 to T3**. *Radioiodine therapy* - **Radioactive iodine** is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy as it can cross the placenta and cause **fetal hypothyroidism or athyreosis**. - It leads to permanent destruction of the thyroid gland and is not suitable for a temporary condition in a pregnant woman. *Total thyroidectomy* - While thyroidectomy can be considered for Graves' disease in pregnancy, it is generally reserved for cases where antithyroid drugs are not tolerated or ineffective, or for very large goiters causing compressive symptoms. - It carries risks associated with **surgery and anesthesia** during pregnancy, and requires **lifelong thyroid hormone replacement**. *Carbimazole parenteral* - **Carbimazole** (which is metabolized to methimazole) is generally avoided in the **first trimester** due to an increased risk of teratogenicity, particularly **aplasia cutis**, omphalocele, and choanal atresia [1]. - While it can be used in the second and third trimesters, **PTU is preferred in the first trimester**, and carbimazole is not typically administered parenterally.
Question 102: Hypophosphatemia is seen in:
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypoparathyroidism
- C. Hyperparathyroidism (Correct Answer)
- D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Explanation: ***Hyperparathyroidism*** - In **primary hyperparathyroidism**, the excess **parathyroid hormone (PTH)** leads to increased phosphate excretion by the kidneys [1], [4]. - This results in **hypophosphatemia** as the body attempts to maintain **calcium-phosphate balance**, often at the expense of phosphate levels [1]. *Hyperthyroidism* - While hyperthyroidism can affect **bone metabolism**, it is typically associated with **normal or slightly elevated phosphate levels**, not hypophosphatemia [3]. - The main electrolyte disturbances are usually related to **calcium** (e.g., hypercalcemia) due to increased bone turnover [3]. *Hypoparathyroidism* - **Hypoparathyroidism** is characterized by **low or absent PTH**, leading to decreased renal phosphate excretion. - This results in **hyperphosphatemia**, along with **hypocalcemia** [2]. *Pseudohypoparathyroidism* - In **pseudohypoparathyroidism**, there is **PTH resistance** at target tissues, even with high or normal PTH levels [2]. - This leads to symptoms resembling hypoparathyroidism, including **hyperphosphatemia** and **hypocalcemia** [2].
Question 103: Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA)?
- A. Wegener's granulomatosis
- B. Henoch schonlein purpura (Correct Answer)
- C. Microscopic PAN
- D. Churg Strauss syndrome
Explanation: ***Henoch schonlein purpura*** - **Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)** is not associated with **ANCA**; it primarily involves IgA deposition [1]. - Commonly presents with **purpura**, **abdominal pain**, and **glomerulonephritis**, differentiating it from ANCA-associated vasculitides [1]. *Wegener's granulomatosis* - **Wegener's granulomatosis**, now known as **Granulomatosis with polyangiitis**, is strongly associated with **c-ANCA** and anti-PR3 antibodies. - It typically presents with **respiratory** and **renal symptoms** due to vasculitis [2]. *Microscopic PAN* - **Microscopic polyangiitis (PAN)** is associated with **p-ANCA** and myeloperoxidase (MPO) antibodies. - It leads to **glomerulonephritis** and **pulmonary hemorrhage**, indicating its vasculitic nature. *Churg Strauss syndrome* - **Churg-Strauss syndrome**, or **Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis**, is associated with **p-ANCA** and perinuclear staining [1]. - Often presents with **asthma**, **eosinophilia**, and systemic vasculitis affecting multiple organs [1].
Question 104: What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?
- A. Urease breath test (Correct Answer)
- B. Culture
- C. Serological test
- D. Biopsy urease test
Explanation: ***Urease breath test*** - The **urea breath test** is highly sensitive and specific for detecting active *H. pylori* infection and its eradication by measuring radioactive or non-radioactive labeled carbon dioxide released from metabolizing urea. - It is a non-invasive test preferred after treatment to confirm eradication, as it directly detects bacterial urease activity. *Culture* - **Culture** requires an invasive endoscopic biopsy, is expensive, and takes several days to yield results; therefore, it is not the preferred method for routine eradication confirmation. - While it offers the advantage of **antibiotic susceptibility testing**, its invasiveness and turnaround time make it less practical for post-treatment assessment. *Serological test* - **Serological tests** (blood tests for antibodies) remain positive for **H. pylori antibodies** for extended periods even after successful eradication, rendering them unsuitable for confirming eradication. - These tests primarily indicate past exposure rather than current, active infection. *Biopsy urease test* - A **biopsy urease test** involves an invasive endoscopy to obtain a tissue sample, which is then tested for urease activity. - Although useful for initial diagnosis, its invasiveness makes it less preferred for confirming eradication compared to the non-invasive breath test.
Question 105: Anomic aphasia is due to defect in
- A. Left inferior parietal lobe
- B. Left temporal lobe
- C. Temporal occipital lobe (Correct Answer)
- D. Cerebellum
Explanation: ***Temporal occipital lobe*** - Anomic aphasia, characterized by difficulty recalling **words or names (anomia)**, is most commonly associated with lesions in the **left temporo-occipital region**. - This area is crucial for **semantic processing** and word retrieval. *Left inferior parietal lobe* - Damage to the left inferior parietal lobe is more commonly associated with **conduction aphasia**, characterized by impaired repetition despite fluent speech and good comprehension. - It is also involved in aspects of **reading (alexia)** and **writing (agraphia)**. *Left temporal lobe* - While portions of the left temporal lobe (especially Wernicke's area) are critical for language comprehension, damage primarily to this area typically results in **Wernicke's aphasia**, where speech is fluent but meaningless, and comprehension is severely impaired. - Anomia can be a feature of Wernicke's aphasia, but the primary deficit is comprehension. *Cerebellum* - The cerebellum plays a significant role in **motor control**, balance, and coordination, but it is not directly involved in the **generation or comprehension of language** in the same way as cortical areas. - Damage to the cerebellum might lead to **dysarthria** (speech motor difficulties), but not typical aphasia.
Question 106: Neurofibromatosis true all, except-
- A. Associated with cataract
- B. Multiple fibroma
- C. Autosomal recessive (Correct Answer)
- D. Scoliosis
Explanation: Autosomal recessive - Neurofibromatosis types 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant disorders, not autosomal recessive. - This indicates that only one copy of the mutated gene is sufficient to cause the condition, and it can be passed from one affected parent to their children with a 50% probability. Associated with cataract - Juvenile posterior subcapsular cataracts are a known ocular manifestation, particularly in Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2). - This is a common finding and one of the diagnostic criteria for NF2. Multiple fibroma - Neurofibromas (benign tumors of peripheral nerves) are characteristic features of Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). - These can be cutaneous, subcutaneous, or plexiform and are often numerous. Scoliosis - Scoliosis (curvature of the spine) is a common musculoskeletal complication associated with Neurofibromatosis, especially NF1. - It can be dystrophic or non-dystrophic and may require surgical intervention in severe cases.
Question 107: Which of the following provide protection against malaria except
- A. Thalassemia
- B. PNH (Correct Answer)
- C. Sickle cell anemia
- D. Duffy blood group
Explanation: ***PNH*** - **Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)** is a rare, acquired clonal disorder of hematopoietic stem cells characterized by complement-mediated hemolysis. - It does not offer any known protective advantage against malaria infection; in fact, chronic hemolysis could potentially complicate malaria diagnosis or management. *Thalassemia* - Individuals with **thalassemia traits (heterozygotes)**, particularly alpha-thalassemia, have red blood cells that are more resistant to malarial parasite invasion and growth [1]. - This protection is thought to arise from altered red cell morphology, reduced parasite multiplication, and enhanced clearance of infected cells. *Sickle cell anemia* - The **heterozygous state (sickle cell trait)** provides significant protection against severe malaria, as the altered hemoglobin S in red blood cells inhibits parasite growth and promotes early clearance of infected cells [1], [2]. - Although the homozygous state (sickle cell anemia) can be severe, even carriers benefit from reduced malaria susceptibility. *Duffy blood group* - Absence of the **Duffy antigen on red blood cells**, common in West African populations, provides complete protection against infection with **Plasmodium vivax** malaria. - The Duffy antigen receptor is essential for *P. vivax* to invade human red blood cells.