What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
Most common site for anal fissure is
A 55-year-old male presents with a history of dysphagia with vomiting of undigested food throughout the day, weight loss, and appears emaciated and dehydrated. No mass is palpable per abdomen. After appropriate diagnostic workup reveals a benign esophageal stricture, the most appropriate definitive management is:
Which of the following is an example of a clean surgery?
What imaging study is typically required before endoscopic sinus surgery?
Which fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy?
Most common anomaly of upper urogenital tract is -
In which one of the following conditions is gas under the diaphragm typically seen?
Which of the following statements about Grisel syndrome is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: What is the method of reduction for an inguinal hernia?
- A. Taxis (Correct Answer)
- B. Stopa's technique
- C. Kugel patch
- D. McVay procedure
Explanation: ***Taxis*** - **Taxis** is the manual reduction of a hernia by applying gentle, sustained pressure to gently guide the herniated contents back into the abdominal cavity. - This technique is typically used for **reducible hernias** to prevent complications like strangulation. *Kugel maneuver* - The **Kugel patch** is a device used in the surgical repair of inguinal hernias, not a method of manual reduction. - It involves a **preperitoneal mesh** placed during an open repair to reinforce the weakened abdominal wall. *Macvay procedure* - The **McVay repair** (also known as Cooper's ligament repair) is a surgical technique for inguinal hernias. - It involves suturing the **conjoint tendon** to Cooper's ligament for a strong repair, not a manual reduction. *Stopa's technique* - "Stopa's technique" is not a recognized medical term or a standard method for hernia reduction or repair. - This option appears to be a **distractor** and does not correspond to any established medical procedure for hernias.
Question 42: Most common site for anal fissure is
- A. 3 O'clock
- B. 6 O'clock (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 O'clock
- D. 10 O'clock
Explanation: ***6 O'clock*** - The **posterior midline (6 o'clock position)** is the most common site for anal fissures, accounting for approximately **90% of all cases**. - This location is prone to tearing due to relatively **poor blood supply** and increased **mechanical stress** during defecation. - The posterior midline is the least supported part of the anal canal by the external anal sphincter. - **Note**: The **anterior midline (12 o'clock position)** is the second most common site, occurring in **10-25% of women** but rarely in men. *3 O'clock* - The **3 o'clock position (right lateral)** is an infrequent site for anal fissures. - Fissures in this location, especially if *lateral*, may suggest an underlying systemic disease such as **Crohn's disease**, **tuberculosis**, **HIV**, or **malignancy**. - Atypical fissures warrant thorough investigation. *2 O'clock* - The **2 o'clock position (anterior-lateral)** is not typically associated with anal fissures. - Similar to other atypical sites, a fissure here warrants investigation for secondary causes. - Consider inflammatory bowel disease or other pathological conditions. *10 O'clock* - The **10 o'clock position (left lateral)** is also a less common site for anal fissures compared to the posterior midline. - Fissures in lateral positions should raise suspicion for other conditions, such as **inflammatory bowel disease**, **tuberculosis**, **HIV**, or **malignancy**.
Question 43: A 55-year-old male presents with a history of dysphagia with vomiting of undigested food throughout the day, weight loss, and appears emaciated and dehydrated. No mass is palpable per abdomen. After appropriate diagnostic workup reveals a benign esophageal stricture, the most appropriate definitive management is:
- A. IV normal saline
- B. pH monitoring
- C. IV total parenteral nutrition
- D. Endoscopic dilation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Endoscopic dilation (preferred treatment)*** - **Endoscopic dilation** directly addresses the underlying problem of the **benign esophageal stricture** by widening the narrowed esophagus, which is crucial for relieving dysphagia and improving nutritional intake. - Given the patient's severe symptoms like **weight loss**, **emaciation**, and **dehydration**, dilation allows for symptom relief and subsequent rehydration and nutritional support. *IV total parenteral nutrition* - While TPN provides nutrition, it does not resolve the **mechanical obstruction** caused by the stricture and carries risks such as infection and metabolic complications. - It's typically reserved for situations where enteral feeding is not possible or adequate after addressing the obstruction. *IV normal saline* - **IV normal saline** would help address the immediate **dehydration**, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms (the esophageal stricture). - This is a supportive measure, not the primary management strategy for the stricture itself. *pH monitoring* - **pH monitoring** is used to diagnose and assess gastroesophageal reflux disease (**GERD**), which can sometimes cause strictures. - However, in a patient with a confirmed benign esophageal stricture and severe obstructive symptoms, addressing the stricture mechanically (dilation) takes precedence over diagnostic testing for reflux.
Question 44: Which of the following is an example of a clean surgery?
- A. Hernia surgery (Correct Answer)
- B. Cholecystectomy
- C. Rectal surgery
- D. Gastric surgery
Explanation: ***Hernia surgery*** - **Clean surgeries** involve no entry into hollow viscera (e.g., gastrointestinal, genitourinary, or respiratory tract) and are characterized by **no inflammation** or infection. Hernia repair typically fits this description. - The risk of **surgical site infection** (SSI) is usually less than 2% in clean cases, making it a benchmark for surgical infection control. *Gastric surgery* - This involves entry into the **gastrointestinal tract**, which is considered a **contaminated** or **clean-contaminated** procedure due to the presence of bacteria. - The risk of infection is higher than in clean surgeries, often requiring prophylactic antibiotics. *Cholecystectomy* - This procedure involves the **gallbladder**, which is part of the biliary system, often considered a **clean-contaminated** wound if bile spills or if there's no evidence of active infection. - If performed for **acute cholecystitis** (inflammation/infection), it would be classified as **contaminated** or **dirty**. *Rectal surgery* - This involves the **rectum**, which is part of the lower **gastrointestinal tract** and contains a high bacterial load. - Procedures involving the rectum are classified as **contaminated** or **dirty** due to the high risk of bacterial contamination.
Question 45: What imaging study is typically required before endoscopic sinus surgery?
- A. MRI of paranasal sinus
- B. CT of PNS (Correct Answer)
- C. Acoustic tests
- D. Mucociliary clearing testing
Explanation: ***CT of PNS*** - A **CT scan of the paranasal sinuses** is crucial prior to endoscopic sinus surgery for detailed anatomical mapping. - It helps identify **key anatomical landmarks**, variations, and the extent of disease, minimizing surgical risks. *MRI of paranasal sinus* - **MRI** is generally reserved for evaluating **soft tissue abnormalities**, such as tumors, fungal infections, or intracranial extension. - It provides less detail regarding **bony anatomy** and is not the primary imaging modality for surgical planning in routine cases. *Mucociliary clearing testing* - **Mucociliary clearing tests** assess the function of the **mucociliary escalator** in the nasal cavity and sinuses. - These tests are primarily diagnostic for conditions like **primary ciliary dyskinesia** and do not provide anatomical detail for surgical guidance. *Acoustic tests* - **Acoustic tests** are typically used to assess **hearing function** in the ear. - They have **no relevance** to the anatomical evaluation of the paranasal sinuses or planning for endoscopic sinus surgery.
Question 46: Which fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
- A. Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones
- B. Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face
- C. Isolated nasal bone fracture
- D. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw** - A **Le Fort I fracture** is a **horizontal fracture** that detaches the entire **maxillary arch**, including the **palate** and **alveolar process**, from the rest of the facial skeleton. - This fracture line typically extends **above the level of the nasal floor** and involves the **pterygoid plates**. *Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones* - This description corresponds to a **Le Fort II fracture**, which is a **pyramidal fracture** involving the **nasal bones**, **medial walls of the orbits**, and the **maxilla**. - It creates a central fragment that includes the **nasal bridge** and part of the maxilla, separating it from the frontal bone. *Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face* - This refers to a **Le Fort III fracture**, also known as **craniofacial disjunction**. - It involves the separation of the entire **midfacial skeleton** from the **cranial base**, often extending through the **zygomaticofrontal sutures** and **nasofrontal sutures**. *Isolated nasal bone fracture* - An **isolated nasal bone fracture** involves only the nasal bones and does not extend into the maxilla or other facial structures. - It is a much more **localized injury** compared to any of the Le Fort fracture patterns.
Question 47: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy?
- A. Thyroid carcinoma
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thyroid surgery
- D. Aortic aneurysm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aortic aneurysm*** - An aortic aneurysm, especially of the ascending aorta, is **less likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy** because the left recurrent laryngeal nerve typically hooks under the aortic arch, while the right nerve hooks under the subclavian artery. - For **bilateral involvement**, two separate and simultaneous lesions affecting both nerves would be required at different anatomical locations with this etiology, making it a rare cause. *Thyroid carcinoma* - An aggressive **thyroid carcinoma** can directly invade or compress the recurrent laryngeal nerves (RLNs) due to their proximity to the thyroid gland. - If the carcinoma is extensive or multifocal, it can lead to **bilateral involvement** by affecting both nerves. *Lymphadenopathy* - Significant **cervical or mediastinal lymphadenopathy** (e.g., due to metastatic disease or lymphoma) can compress or encase both recurrent laryngeal nerves. - This proximity allows for potential **bilateral compression or damage** to the nerves as they ascend in the tracheoesophageal grooves. *Thyroid surgery* - **Thyroidectomy** is a common cause of recurrent laryngeal nerve injury due to the nerves' close anatomical relationship with the thyroid gland. - **Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy** can occur if both nerves are damaged during dissection, often due to surgical misidentification, thermal injury, or traction.
Question 48: Most common anomaly of upper urogenital tract is -
- A. Uretero pelvic junction stenosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Ureterocele
- C. Ectopic ureter
- D. Ectopic urethral opening
Explanation: ***Uretero pelvic junction stenosis*** - **Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction** is the most common cause of **antenatally detected hydronephrosis**, making it the most frequent anomaly of the upper urogenital tract. - It results from an intrinsic or extrinsic narrowing at the junction of the **renal pelvis** and the **ureter**, impeding urine flow. *Ectopic urethral opening* - This anomaly involves the **urethral opening** being in an abnormal location, such as **hypospadias** or **epispadias** in males, or into the vagina in females. - While relatively common, it is an anomaly of the **lower urogenital tract**, specifically the urethra, not the upper tract. *Ureterocele* - A ureterocele is a **cystic dilation** of the distal part of the ureter as it enters the bladder. - While it can be associated with varying degrees of **upper tract obstruction**, it is not as common as UPJ stenosis. *Ectopic ureter* - An ectopic ureter involves a ureter that drains into an abnormal location other than the **trigone of the bladder**. - This condition is less common than UPJ stenosis and is often associated with a **duplex collecting system**.
Question 49: In which one of the following conditions is gas under the diaphragm typically seen?
- A. Perforated duodenal ulcer (Correct Answer)
- B. Typhoid perforation
- C. After laparotomy
- D. Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus
Explanation: ***Perforated duodenal ulcer*** - A perforated duodenal ulcer creates a communication between the **lumen of the duodenum and the peritoneal cavity**, allowing air from the gastrointestinal tract to escape. - This free air, being lighter, rises and collects under the **diaphragm**, visible as **pneumoperitoneum** on an upright chest X-ray. - This is the **classic and most typical** presentation taught in medical education for gas under the diaphragm. - Occurs in approximately **70-75% of cases** of peptic ulcer perforation. *Typhoid perforation* - Typhoid perforation (typically affecting the **terminal ileum**) also causes pneumoperitoneum and can show gas under the diaphragm. - However, it is **less commonly encountered** in routine practice compared to peptic ulcer perforation in most settings. - The question asks for the **"typically seen"** condition, which refers to the classic teaching example: perforated duodenal ulcer. *After laparotomy* - It is normal to see a small amount of **residual intra-abdominal gas** for a few days to a week after a laparotomy, which can collect under the diaphragm. - However, this is a **post-surgical finding** and not a pathological condition leading to gas under the diaphragm in the same acute, diagnostic sense as a perforation. - Not the answer when considering pathological causes. *Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus* - Spontaneous oesophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome) leads to leakage of oesophageal contents into the **mediastinum or pleural cavity**, not the peritoneal cavity. - Presents with **mediastinal emphysema** (Hamman's sign) and pleural effusion rather than pneumoperitoneum. - **Subdiaphragmatic free air** indicative of pneumoperitoneum is not typically seen.
Question 50: Which of the following statements about Grisel syndrome is false?
- A. It can occur after adenoidectomy.
- B. It involves inflammation of cervical spine ligaments.
- C. A neurosurgeon is never needed. (Correct Answer)
- D. Conservative treatment is the first-line approach in most cases.
Explanation: ***A neurosurgeon is never needed.*** - This statement is false because severe cases of **Grisel syndrome** may require surgical intervention, necessitating consultation with a **neurosurgeon**. - Surgical management, such as **cervical fusion**, may be indicated in cases of irreducible subluxation or neurological compromise. *It can occur after adenoidectomy.* - This statement is true; **Grisel syndrome** is a rare complication that may occur following **adenoidectomy** or other head and neck surgeries. - The postulated mechanism involves inflammation spreading from the pharynx to the alar and transverse ligaments, leading to **atlantoaxial subluxation**. *It involves inflammation of cervical spine ligaments.* - This statement is true; **Grisel syndrome** is characterized by non-traumatic **atlantoaxial subluxation** resulting from inflammatory laxity of the cervical ligaments. - Specifically, the **transverse and alar ligaments** become inflamed and weakened, leading to instability between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2). *Conservative treatment is the first-line approach in most cases.* - This statement is true; initial management of **Grisel syndrome** typically involves conservative measures such as **neck immobilization**, pain control, and muscle relaxants. - Early diagnosis and conservative treatment are crucial to prevent progression and potential neurological complications.