NEET-PG 2013 — Radiology

Q: Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?

Coarctation of the aorta. ***Coarctation of the aorta*** - **Inferior rib notching** is a classic radiographic sign caused by the **enlarged, tortuous intercostal arteries** eroding the inferior margins of the ribs. - This collateral circulation develops to bypass the narrowed aortic segment, increasing blood flow through the intercostal arteries. *Rickets* - Rickets can cause **bowing of long bones**, widened epiphyseal plates, and a **rachitic rosary** (enlargement of costochondral junctions). - It does not typically lead to rib notching; rather, it affects bone mineralization and growth patterns. *ASD* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a congenital heart defect causing a left-to-right shunt, leading to pulmonary overload and right heart enlargement. - While it can manifest with cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings, it does not cause rib notching. *Multiple myeloma* - Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that causes **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, leading to bone pain and pathological fractures. - While it affects bone, the lesions are typically osteolytic and diffuse, not specifically causing inferior rib notching. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which CT view is best for visualizing paranasal polyps?

Coronal view. ***Coronal*** - The **coronal view** provides the best visualization of the **ostia of the paranasal sinuses**, which are crucial for assessing the extent and obstruction caused by polyps. - This orientation effectively demonstrates whether polyps are **protruding into the nasal cavity** or obstructing the drainage pathways. *Axial view* - The axial view is useful for evaluating **posterior structures** and **bony erosion** but is less optimal for assessing the vertical extent of polyps or ostial obstruction. - It can show the **anteroposterior dimensions** of polyps but does not offer the same clarity for sinus outflow tracts as the coronal view. *Sagittal view* - The sagittal view is good for showing the **craniocaudal extent** of lesions and differentiating between the nasal cavity and sphenoid sinus, but it is not ideal for comprehensive paranasal sinus polyp evaluation. - It can help in localizing some polyps but does not provide a clear overview of **sinus ostia** or lateral extension. *3D view* - A 3D reconstruction can be helpful for a general overview and surgical planning but does not offer the fine detail and specific orientation needed for primary polyp detection and ostial assessment as effectively as direct 2D views. - It is a derived image rather than a primary acquisition plane and might obscure smaller polyps or subtle anatomical relationships. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of

Ulcerative colitis. ***Crohns disease*** - The **hose pipe appearance** of the intestine on imaging is due to **transmural inflammation** and **strictures**, characteristic of Crohn's disease [1]. - This feature indicates a **narrowed lumen** due to fibrosis, often affecting the small intestine or colon [1]. *Malabsorption syndrome* - This condition is primarily associated with **nutrient absorption issues**, not structural changes in the intestine. - It typically presents with **diarrhea**, **weight loss**, and **malnutrition**, lacking the characteristic imaging findings. *Ulcerative colitis* - Usually presents with **continuous lesions** confined to the colonic mucosa, leading to ulcers and inflammation but not a **hose pipe appearance**. - Symptoms include **bloody diarrhea** and **abdominal pain**, distinctly different from Crohn's disease. *Hirsprung disease* - A congenital condition causing **intestinal obstruction** due to the absence of ganglion cells, leading to **dilated proximal bowel** rather than a hose pipe appearance. - Typically presents in infants with **severe constipation** and **abdominal distension**, unrelated to imaging features seen in Crohn's disease. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 366-367. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?

Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid. ***Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid*** - Chronic otitis media leads to **long-standing inflammation** and **destruction** of the mastoid air cells, resulting in dense, **sclerotic bone** with cavity formation due to bone erosion. - This is the **characteristic X-ray finding** in chronic otitis media, indicating osseous remodeling and bone destruction from persistent infection. - The sclerosis represents reactive bone formation, while cavities form from **coalescence** of destroyed air cells. *Honeycombing of mastoid* - Honeycombing describes a **normal, well-pneumatized mastoid** with numerous small, distinct air cells visible on X-ray. - This appearance indicates a healthy mastoid bone with good aeration and is **inconsistent** with chronic inflammation. - Chronic otitis media causes bone remodeling and sclerosis, **not** preserved pneumatization. *Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells* - This describes **normal mastoid anatomy** where air cells are well-defined and separated by thin, intact bony septa. - In chronic otitis media, these septa are typically **eroded or thickened** by inflammation, leading to loss of distinctness. - The inflammatory process causes destruction and sclerosis, **not** preservation of normal architecture. *Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells* - Increased pneumatization indicates **excessive air cell development**, which is opposite to the changes seen in chronic infection. - Chronic otitis media causes **destruction and sclerosis** of air cells, not increased pneumatization. - This would be seen in normal developmental variants, not chronic inflammatory disease. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which condition is characterized by a specific radiological appearance resembling a sunburst pattern?

Osteosarcoma. ***Osteosarcoma*** - **Osteosarcoma** is known for its classic radiological findings, including the **sunburst (rising sun)** or **spiculated periosteal reaction**, where new bone forms perpendicular to the cortex. - Another characteristic finding is **Codman's triangle**, which is a triangular elevation of the periosteum visible on X-ray. *Chondrosarcoma* - **Chondrosarcomas** are typically characterized by a **"rings and arcs"** pattern of calcification within the cartilaginous matrix on imaging studies. - They tend to appear as lobular masses with endosteal scalloping and soft tissue components rather than the sunburst pattern. *Ewing's sarcoma* - **Ewing's sarcoma** classically presents with an **"onion skin" (lamellated)** periosteal reaction due to layers of parallel new bone formation. - It often appears as an ill-defined lytic lesion with cortical destruction, differing from the sunburst appearance. *Fibrosarcoma* - **Fibrosarcomas** are typically **lytic lesions** with aggressive cortical destruction and soft tissue involvement. - They generally do not produce characteristic periosteal reactions like the sunburst or onion skin appearance, often presenting as non-specific destructive lesions. [Practice more Radiology PYQs on OnCourse]

44 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?

Which CT view is best for visualizing paranasal polyps?

Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of

What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?

Which condition is characterized by a specific radiological appearance resembling a sunburst pattern?

All the following are true of craniopharyngioma except:

What is the primary use of the Balthazar scoring system?

Retrocardiac lucency with air fluid level is seen in

The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysms is -

Q10

The CT severity index in acute pancreatitis is described by:

NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Inferior rib notching is seen in which of the following conditions?

A. Rickets
B. ASD
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Coarctation of the aorta (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Coarctation of the aorta*** - **Inferior rib notching** is a classic radiographic sign caused by the **enlarged, tortuous intercostal arteries** eroding the inferior margins of the ribs. - This collateral circulation develops to bypass the narrowed aortic segment, increasing blood flow through the intercostal arteries. *Rickets* - Rickets can cause **bowing of long bones**, widened epiphyseal plates, and a **rachitic rosary** (enlargement of costochondral junctions). - It does not typically lead to rib notching; rather, it affects bone mineralization and growth patterns. *ASD* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a congenital heart defect causing a left-to-right shunt, leading to pulmonary overload and right heart enlargement. - While it can manifest with cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings, it does not cause rib notching. *Multiple myeloma* - Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that causes **punched-out lytic lesions** in bones, leading to bone pain and pathological fractures. - While it affects bone, the lesions are typically osteolytic and diffuse, not specifically causing inferior rib notching.

Question 2: Which CT view is best for visualizing paranasal polyps?

A. Coronal view (Correct Answer)
B. Axial view
C. Sagittal view
D. 3D view

Explanation: ***Coronal*** - The **coronal view** provides the best visualization of the **ostia of the paranasal sinuses**, which are crucial for assessing the extent and obstruction caused by polyps. - This orientation effectively demonstrates whether polyps are **protruding into the nasal cavity** or obstructing the drainage pathways. *Axial view* - The axial view is useful for evaluating **posterior structures** and **bony erosion** but is less optimal for assessing the vertical extent of polyps or ostial obstruction. - It can show the **anteroposterior dimensions** of polyps but does not offer the same clarity for sinus outflow tracts as the coronal view. *Sagittal view* - The sagittal view is good for showing the **craniocaudal extent** of lesions and differentiating between the nasal cavity and sphenoid sinus, but it is not ideal for comprehensive paranasal sinus polyp evaluation. - It can help in localizing some polyps but does not provide a clear overview of **sinus ostia** or lateral extension. *3D view* - A 3D reconstruction can be helpful for a general overview and surgical planning but does not offer the fine detail and specific orientation needed for primary polyp detection and ostial assessment as effectively as direct 2D views. - It is a derived image rather than a primary acquisition plane and might obscure smaller polyps or subtle anatomical relationships.

Question 3: Hose pipe appearance of intestine is a feature of

A. Malabsorption syndrome
B. Ulcerative colitis (Correct Answer)
C. Crohn's disease
D. Hirschsprung disease

Explanation: ***Crohns disease*** - The **hose pipe appearance** of the intestine on imaging is due to **transmural inflammation** and **strictures**, characteristic of Crohn's disease [1]. - This feature indicates a **narrowed lumen** due to fibrosis, often affecting the small intestine or colon [1]. *Malabsorption syndrome* - This condition is primarily associated with **nutrient absorption issues**, not structural changes in the intestine. - It typically presents with **diarrhea**, **weight loss**, and **malnutrition**, lacking the characteristic imaging findings. *Ulcerative colitis* - Usually presents with **continuous lesions** confined to the colonic mucosa, leading to ulcers and inflammation but not a **hose pipe appearance**. - Symptoms include **bloody diarrhea** and **abdominal pain**, distinctly different from Crohn's disease. *Hirsprung disease* - A congenital condition causing **intestinal obstruction** due to the absence of ganglion cells, leading to **dilated proximal bowel** rather than a hose pipe appearance. - Typically presents in infants with **severe constipation** and **abdominal distension**, unrelated to imaging features seen in Crohn's disease. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Alimentary System Disease, pp. 366-367.

Question 4: What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?

A. Honeycombing of mastoid
B. Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid (Correct Answer)
C. Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells
D. Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells

Explanation: ***Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid*** - Chronic otitis media leads to **long-standing inflammation** and **destruction** of the mastoid air cells, resulting in dense, **sclerotic bone** with cavity formation due to bone erosion. - This is the **characteristic X-ray finding** in chronic otitis media, indicating osseous remodeling and bone destruction from persistent infection. - The sclerosis represents reactive bone formation, while cavities form from **coalescence** of destroyed air cells. *Honeycombing of mastoid* - Honeycombing describes a **normal, well-pneumatized mastoid** with numerous small, distinct air cells visible on X-ray. - This appearance indicates a healthy mastoid bone with good aeration and is **inconsistent** with chronic inflammation. - Chronic otitis media causes bone remodeling and sclerosis, **not** preserved pneumatization. *Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells* - This describes **normal mastoid anatomy** where air cells are well-defined and separated by thin, intact bony septa. - In chronic otitis media, these septa are typically **eroded or thickened** by inflammation, leading to loss of distinctness. - The inflammatory process causes destruction and sclerosis, **not** preservation of normal architecture. *Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells* - Increased pneumatization indicates **excessive air cell development**, which is opposite to the changes seen in chronic infection. - Chronic otitis media causes **destruction and sclerosis** of air cells, not increased pneumatization. - This would be seen in normal developmental variants, not chronic inflammatory disease.

Question 5: Which condition is characterized by a specific radiological appearance resembling a sunburst pattern?

A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma (Correct Answer)
D. Ewing's sarcoma

Explanation: ***Osteosarcoma*** - **Osteosarcoma** is known for its classic radiological findings, including the **sunburst (rising sun)** or **spiculated periosteal reaction**, where new bone forms perpendicular to the cortex. - Another characteristic finding is **Codman's triangle**, which is a triangular elevation of the periosteum visible on X-ray. *Chondrosarcoma* - **Chondrosarcomas** are typically characterized by a **"rings and arcs"** pattern of calcification within the cartilaginous matrix on imaging studies. - They tend to appear as lobular masses with endosteal scalloping and soft tissue components rather than the sunburst pattern. *Ewing's sarcoma* - **Ewing's sarcoma** classically presents with an **"onion skin" (lamellated)** periosteal reaction due to layers of parallel new bone formation. - It often appears as an ill-defined lytic lesion with cortical destruction, differing from the sunburst appearance. *Fibrosarcoma* - **Fibrosarcomas** are typically **lytic lesions** with aggressive cortical destruction and soft tissue involvement. - They generally do not produce characteristic periosteal reactions like the sunburst or onion skin appearance, often presenting as non-specific destructive lesions.

Question 6: All the following are true of craniopharyngioma except:

A. Derived from Rathke's pouch
B. Contains epithelial cells
C. Causes visual disturbances
D. Present in sella or infra-sellar location (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Present in sella or infra-sellar location*** - Craniopharyngiomas are typically located in the **suprasellar region**, above the **sella turcica**, where they can compress the optic chiasm. - While they can extend into the sella, their primary location is rarely exclusively intrasellar or infrasellar. *Derived from Rathke's pouch* - This statement is true; craniopharyngiomas arise from remnants of **Rathke's pouch**, the embryonic precursor of the anterior pituitary gland. - This origin explains their characteristic location near the pituitary stalk and third ventricle. *Contains epithelial cells* - This statement is true as **craniopharyngiomas** are benign **epithelial tumors**, specifically adamantinomatous or papillary types. - They are composed of stratified squamous epithelium, often with calcifications and cystic components. *Causes visual disturbances* - This statement is true because the **suprasellar location** of a craniopharyngioma often leads to compression of the **optic chiasm**, resulting in characteristic visual field deficits like bitemporal hemianopsia. - Visual disturbances are a common presenting symptom due to their proximity to the visual pathways.

Question 7: What is the primary use of the Balthazar scoring system?

A. Acute Pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
B. Acute Appendicitis
C. Acute Cholecystitis
D. Cholangitis

Explanation: ***Acute Pancreatitis*** - The Balthazar score (also known as the **CT Severity Index** for pancreatitis) is primarily used to assess the severity of **acute pancreatitis** based on findings from a **CT scan**. - It evaluates pancreatic inflammation and necrosis, correlating with patient prognosis and the risk of complications. *Acute Appendicitis* - Acute appendicitis is typically diagnosed clinically, often with the help of the **Alvarado score** or imaging like ultrasound/CT, but not the Balthazar score. - The Balthazar score's focus on pancreatic changes is irrelevant to appendiceal inflammation. *Acute Cholecystitis* - Diagnosis of acute cholecystitis is based on clinical signs, lab tests, and imaging (ultrasound showing **gallbladder wall thickening**, pericholecystic fluid, or stones). - The Balthazar scoring system does not apply to the assessment of gallbladder inflammation. *Cholangitis* - Cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts, diagnosed using the **Tokyo Guidelines**, which consider systemic inflammation, cholestasis, and imaging of biliary obstruction. - The Balthazar score is specific to pancreatic inflammation and does not provide information relevant to cholangitis.

Question 8: Retrocardiac lucency with air fluid level is seen in

A. Distal esophageal obstruction
B. Diaphragmatic eventration
C. Hiatus hernia (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Hiatus hernia*** - A **hiatus hernia** occurs when part of the stomach protrudes into the chest through the **esophageal hiatus** of the diaphragm. - This can lead to a **retrocardiac lucency** (gas-filled stomach) with an **air-fluid level** visible on chest X-rays due to gastric contents. - The herniated gastric fundus appears as a characteristic gas bubble behind the heart, particularly well-seen on lateral chest radiographs. *Distal esophageal obstruction* - While distal esophageal obstruction can cause esophageal dilation and sometimes an **air-fluid level** within the esophagus, it generally presents as a tubular structure *behind* the heart rather than a distinct retrocardiac lucency representing a portion of the stomach. - The appearance would be more suggestive of a dilated esophagus filled with contents, not a herniated stomach. *Diaphragmatic eventration* - **Diaphragmatic eventration** is an abnormal elevation of a portion of the diaphragm, often due to congenital weakness or phrenic nerve paralysis. - It does not typically cause a **retrocardiac lucency** with an **air-fluid level**, as it involves the diaphragm itself rather than the herniation of an abdominal organ. - It may show elevation of the hemidiaphragm but without the characteristic gas-filled viscus appearance. *None of the options* - Hiatus hernia is a well-established radiological diagnosis for retrocardiac lucency with an **air-fluid level**, making this option clearly incorrect.

Question 9: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of aortic aneurysms is -

A. Computed tomography (Correct Answer)
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
C. Arteriography
D. Ultrasonography

Explanation: ***Computed tomography*** - **Computed tomography (CT)** offers excellent spatial resolution and is the gold standard for diagnosing, staging, and pre-operative planning for aortic aneurysms. - It precisely measures aneurysm size, detects mural thrombus, assesses rupture risk, and evaluates the extent of involvement with surrounding structures. *Ultrasonography* - While useful for initial screening and serial monitoring of known abdominal aortic aneurysms due to its non-invasiveness and cost-effectiveness, its accuracy can be limited by **patient body habitus** and **bowel gas**. - It may not reliably visualize the entire aorta or accurately assess complex anatomy and rupture. *Magnetic resonance imaging* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** provides detailed anatomical information and avoids radiation exposure, but it is typically more expensive and time-consuming than CT. - It is often reserved for patients with **renal insufficiency** where iodinated contrast is a concern or when evaluating specific tissue characteristics not well seen on CT. *Arteriography* - **Arteriography** (angiography) is an invasive procedure involving direct contrast injection, carrying risks such as arterial injury and nephrotoxicity. - While it can visualize the aortic lumen, it primarily shows the patent lumen and may **underestimate the true aneurysm size** due to mural thrombus. It is typically used for intervention planning or specific contexts rather than initial diagnosis.

Question 10: The CT severity index in acute pancreatitis is described by:

A. Balthazar score (Correct Answer)
B. Mengini score
C. Chapman score
D. Napelon score

Explanation: ***Balthazar score*** - The **Balthazar score** (or CT severity index) is a widely used radiological grading system for assessing the severity of **acute pancreatitis** based on findings on computed tomography (CT) scans. It evaluates both pancreatic inflammation and necrosis. - The Balthazar score helps predict the clinical course and potential complications of pancreatitis by assigning points for **pancreatic inflammation** and the extent of **necrosis**. *Mengini score* - The **Mengini score** is not a recognized CT severity index specifically for acute pancreatitis. - This name is not associated with any established scoring system in gastroenterology. *Chapman score* - The **Chapman score** refers to specific somatic points used in **osteopathic manipulative medicine** for diagnosis and treatment, primarily related to lymphatic system dysfunction. - It has no relevance to the radiological assessment or severity grading of acute pancreatitis. *Napelon score* - The **Napelon score** does not exist as a recognized medical scoring system, particularly in the context of acute pancreatitis or medical imaging. - This name is likely a distractor and not associated with medical practice.