In a healthy person, arterial baroreceptor activity is seen at what stage of the cardiac cycle?
By what percentage can cardiac output increase in a healthy adult during intense physical activity compared to resting levels?
What is the critical closing pressure in the context of capillary physiology?
All are true about baroreceptors, except?
What is the normal mean velocity of blood flow in the aorta?
Duration of maximum contraction depends upon?
Which type of muscle fibers has fewer mitochondria?
Which of the following statements is true about red muscle fibers?
Integration center of tonic labyrinthine reflex is?
Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the righting reflex?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: In a healthy person, arterial baroreceptor activity is seen at what stage of the cardiac cycle?
- A. None of the options
- B. Diastole
- C. Systole
- D. Both (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Both*** - Baroreceptors respond to changes in **arterial pressure**, which fluctuates throughout both systole and diastole. - The baroreflex mechanism is continuously active, monitoring and adjusting blood pressure through changes in **heart rate**, **contractility**, and **vascular resistance** during both phases of the cardiac cycle. *Systole* - While baroreceptors are active during systole due to the **rise in arterial pressure**, they are not exclusively active during this phase. - Their primary role is to detect and respond to the **peak pressure** changes that occur during **ejection**, but their activity extends beyond this. *Diastole* - Baroreceptors continue to fire during diastole, albeit at a lower rate, as blood pressure falls; however, their activity is not limited to this phase alone. - They monitor the **decline in pressure** to help regulate the overall mean arterial pressure, not just the trough. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because arterial baroreceptors are indeed active and crucial for blood pressure regulation throughout the entire cardiac cycle, encompassing both systole and diastole. - Their continuous monitoring is essential for maintaining **hemodynamic stability**.
Question 32: By what percentage can cardiac output increase in a healthy adult during intense physical activity compared to resting levels?
- A. 300 - 400 % (Correct Answer)
- B. 0 - 50 %
- C. 50 - 100 %
- D. 100 - 200 %
Explanation: ***300 - 400 %*** - In a healthy adult, **cardiac output** can increase remarkably during intense physical activity. - The heart can increase its output by **3 to 4 times** (or 300-400%) above resting levels during peak exertion. - At rest, cardiac output is approximately **5 L/min**, but during maximal exercise, it can reach **20-25 L/min** in well-conditioned individuals. - This represents the heart's **reserve capacity** to meet increased metabolic demands during exercise. *0 - 50 %* - This range represents a very **limited increase** in cardiac output and would be indicative of significant underlying cardiac impairment or **heart failure**. - A healthy individual would experience a much greater increase in cardiac output during intense activity than this small percentage. *50 - 100 %* - This range also suggests a **suboptimal cardiac response** for a healthy adult undergoing intense physical activity. - While some increase is present, it does not reflect the full capacity of a healthy cardiovascular system to adapt to extreme demands. *100 - 200 %* - While a 100-200% increase is substantial, it still **underestimates the maximal capacity** achievable in a healthy, well-conditioned individual during intense physical exertion. - The heart has a greater capacity for increasing its output to meet metabolic demands during peak exercise.
Question 33: What is the critical closing pressure in the context of capillary physiology?
- A. Arterial pressure minus venous pressure
- B. Capillary pressure minus venous pressure
- C. Pressure below which capillaries close (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Pressure below which capillaries close*** - The **critical closing pressure** is the lowest pressure at which blood can flow through a capillary. - When the luminal pressure falls below this threshold, the capillary collapses due to **extrinsic tissue pressure** and intrinsic vascular tone. *Arterial pressure minus venous pressure* - This calculation represents the **arteriovenous pressure gradient**, which drives blood flow through a vascular bed. - It does not directly define the point at which capillaries collapse. *Capillary pressure minus venous pressure* - This difference primarily influences filtration and reabsorption of fluids across the capillary wall. - It is not directly related to the **critical closing pressure** of the capillaries. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as one of the provided options accurately defines the **critical closing pressure**.
Question 34: All are true about baroreceptors, except?
- A. Stimulated when BP decreases (Correct Answer)
- B. Stimulation causes increased vagal discharge
- C. Stimulate nucleus ambiguus
- D. Afferents are through sino-aortic nerves
Explanation: ***Stimulated when BP decreases*** - Baroreceptors are **stretch receptors** located in the walls of the carotid sinus and aortic arch. - They are stimulated by an **increase in blood pressure (BP)**, which causes stretching of the arterial walls, not by a decrease. *Afferents are through sino-aortic nerves* - This statement is **true**. Afferent impulses from the carotid sinus baroreceptors travel via the **glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)**, and those from the aortic arch baroreceptors travel via the **vagus nerve (X)**. - These nerves collectively form the **sino-aortic nerves** that relay information to the brainstem. *Stimulation causes increased vagal discharge* - This statement is **true**. When baroreceptors are stimulated by **increased BP**, they send signals to the cardiovascular center in the medulla. - This leads to increased **parasympathetic (vagal) outflow** to the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and contractility, and inhibition of sympathetic outflow. *Stimulate nucleus ambiguus* - This statement is **true**. The **nucleus ambiguus** is a brainstem nucleus that contains the cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that contribute to the vagus nerve. - Baroreceptor stimulation leads to activation of the nucleus ambiguus, thereby increasing **vagal output** to the heart.
Question 35: What is the normal mean velocity of blood flow in the aorta?
- A. 100-150 cm/sec
- B. 200-250 cm/sec
- C. 250-300 cm/sec
- D. 40-50 cm/sec (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***40-50 cm/sec*** - This range represents the **normal mean velocity** of blood flow in the **aorta**, reflecting efficient cardiac output and systemic circulation. - Blood flow velocity can vary slightly based on factors like age, cardiac health, and physical activity, but this range is a common physiological benchmark. *100-150 cm/sec* - This velocity is significantly **higher** than normal for mean aortic flow and would typically indicate a state of **hyperdynamic circulation** or specific pathological conditions. - Such elevated velocities might be seen in conditions like severe **aortic stenosis**, where the heart works harder to push blood through a narrowed valve. *200-250 cm/sec* - This range is **pathologically high** for mean aortic blood flow and is not compatible with normal physiological function. - Velocities in this range would strongly suggest a severe **cardiovascular abnormality**, such as critical **aortic stenosis** or a significant **arteriovenous shunt**. *250-300 cm/sec* - This velocity is **extremely high** and far exceeds any normal or even most pathological mean aortic flow rates found in humans. - Such high velocities would likely be associated with a highly turbulent and severely compromised cardiovascular system, potentially leading to **acute circulatory failure**.
Question 36: Duration of maximum contraction depends upon?
- A. Both
- B. Absolute refractory period (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the two
- D. Relative refractory period
Explanation: ***Absolute refractory period*** - The duration of **maximum (sustained) contraction** in skeletal muscle depends primarily on the **absolute refractory period** - The absolute refractory period (1-2 ms in skeletal muscle) is much **shorter than the contraction duration** (20-200 ms), allowing for **temporal summation** - When stimuli arrive after the refractory period but before complete relaxation, contractions **summate** to produce **tetanus** (sustained maximum contraction) - A shorter refractory period allows **higher frequency stimulation** → more complete summation → stronger and longer sustained contraction - This is why skeletal muscle can achieve **complete tetanus** at stimulation frequencies of 50-100 Hz *Relative refractory period* - While the relative refractory period affects excitability, it is the **absolute refractory period** that sets the fundamental limit on maximum stimulation frequency - The relative refractory period is less critical for determining the duration of maximum contraction *None of the two* - This is incorrect because the refractory period directly determines the **maximum frequency** at which muscle can be stimulated - Higher stimulation frequency (limited by refractory period) → better temporal summation → sustained maximum contraction (tetanus) - The refractory period is the key factor enabling or limiting the duration of maximum contraction *Both* - While both refractory periods influence excitability, the **absolute refractory period** is the primary determinant - It sets the absolute limit on stimulation frequency and thus the ability to achieve and maintain tetanic contraction
Question 37: Which type of muscle fibers has fewer mitochondria?
- A. Type I fibers (Red fibers)
- B. Type IIb fibers (Fast-twitch fibers) (Correct Answer)
- C. Type IIa fibers
- D. Type IIx fibers (Intermediate fibers)
Explanation: ***Type IIb fibers (Fast-twitch fibers)*** - These fibers rely primarily on **anaerobic glycolysis** for ATP production, which is a less efficient process than aerobic respiration and therefore requires fewer mitochondria. - Their primary function is rapid, powerful contractions over short durations, leading to quick fatigue. *Type IIa fibers* - These fibers are **fast-twitch oxidative-glycolytic** fibers, meaning they have a moderate number of mitochondria to support both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism. - They are capable of generating strong contractions and are more fatigue-resistant than Type IIb fibers but less so than Type I fibers. *Type I fibers (Red fibers)* - Known as **slow-twitch oxidative fibers**, they have a high density of mitochondria to support continuous **aerobic respiration** for sustained, low-intensity contractions. - Their rich blood supply and high myoglobin content give them their characteristic red color and make them highly fatigue-resistant. *Type IIx fibers (Intermediate fibers)* - These fibers are very similar to Type IIb fibers in their metabolic profile, often considered an intermediate or even functionally equivalent type depending on the species. - They also primarily utilize **anaerobic glycolysis** and have a relatively low mitochondrial content, making them prone to fatigue.
Question 38: Which of the following statements is true about red muscle fibers?
- A. Contain fewer mitochondria than white muscle fibers
- B. Have less myoglobin than white muscle fibers
- C. Exhibit more oxidative capacity (Correct Answer)
- D. Utilize glycolytic metabolism
Explanation: ***Exhibit more oxidative capacity*** - **Red muscle fibers**, also known as **slow-twitch fibers**, are rich in **mitochondria** and enzymes for aerobic respiration, allowing for sustained contractions and high oxidative capacity. - Their high oxidative capacity is crucial for activities requiring **endurance**, such as long-distance running or maintaining posture through efficient **ATP production** via the **electron transport chain**. *Contain fewer mitochondria than white muscle fibers* - **Red muscle fibers** contain **more mitochondria** than white muscle fibers to support their greater reliance on **aerobic metabolism** for sustained energy production. - **Mitochondria** are the primary sites of **oxidative phosphorylation**, which is essential for the continuous ATP supply needed by these endurance specialized fibers. *Utilize glycolytic metabolism* - While red fibers can perform some glycolysis, their primary metabolic pathway is **oxidative phosphorylation**, utilizing **fatty acids** and **glucose** aerobically. - **Glycolytic metabolism** is more characteristic of **white muscle fibers (fast-twitch)**, which rely on anaerobic pathways for rapid, high-intensity contractions. *Have less myoglobin than white muscle fibers* - **Red muscle fibers** are characterized by a **high content of myoglobin**, which gives them their characteristic red color and high oxygen storage capacity. - **Myoglobin** is crucial for oxygen delivery to the mitochondria, supporting the sustained aerobic metabolism of these fibers, in contrast to white fibers which have less myoglobin.
Question 39: Integration center of tonic labyrinthine reflex is?
- A. Spinal cord
- B. Medulla (Correct Answer)
- C. Midbrain
- D. Cerebral cortex
Explanation: ***Medulla*** - The **tonic labyrinthine reflex** is a primitive reflex originating in the **vestibular system**, specifically the otolith organs, which respond to head position changes. - Its integration center lies in the **medulla oblongata**, a part of the brainstem responsible for essential involuntary functions. *Spinal cord* - The spinal cord integrates simpler reflexes like **stretch reflexes** and **withdrawal reflexes**. - It does not process the complex vestibular input required for the tonic labyrinthine reflex. *Midbrain* - The **midbrain** is involved in integrating reflexes related to visual and auditory stimuli, such as the **startle reflex** and **pupillary light reflex**. - It is superior to the primary integration center for the tonic labyrinthine reflex. *Cerebral cortex* - The **cerebral cortex** is responsible for higher cognitive functions, voluntary movements, and conscious sensation. - Reflexes like the tonic labyrinthine reflex are subcortical and operate without conscious control.
Question 40: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the righting reflex?
- A. Pons
- B. Spinal cord
- C. Cortex
- D. Midbrain (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Midbrain*** - The **midbrain** plays a crucial role in regulating posture and movement, including the **righting reflex**. - It integrates sensory information from the **vestibular system**, eyes, and proprioceptors to maintain upright posture. *Pons* - The pons is primarily involved in relaying signals between the **cerebrum** and **cerebellum** and regulating respiration and sleep. - While it contributes to motor control, it is not the primary center for the righting reflex. *Spinal cord* - The spinal cord mediates **reflex arcs** and transmits sensory and motor information, but it does not independently control complex postural reflexes like the righting reflex. - It contains the circuits for basic reflexes such as the **stretch reflex** and **withdrawal reflex**. *Cortex* - The cerebral cortex is responsible for **voluntary movements**, higher cognitive functions, and conscious perception. - While it can influence posture, the righting reflex is a subcortical, involuntary process.