Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of caput succedaneum?
In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?
The most common cause of meningitis in children aged 5 yrs is-
What is the APGAR score for a baby that grimaces in response to stimulation?
Most common syndrome associated with A-V canal defect -
What is the most appropriate method for administering asthma treatment to an infant under one year of age?
Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for bronchiolitis?
Most common age for intussusception is
Among the following, which pulmonary tumor is most likely to occur in children?
Which of the following statements about Kernicterus is TRUE?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of caput succedaneum?
- A. Crosses the suture line
- B. Crosses midline
- C. It does not disappear within 2-3 days (Correct Answer)
- D. It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp
Explanation: ***It does not disappear within 2-3 days*** - Caput succedaneum is a benign condition that typically resolves within **2 to 3 days** after birth as the edema is reabsorbed. - Therefore, a characteristic of caput succedaneum is that it *does* disappear relatively quickly, making the statement that it "does not disappear within 2-3 days" incorrect. *Crosses midline* - Caput succedaneum is a **diffuse swelling** that extends across the scalp and is **not limited by anatomical boundaries** like the midline of the skull. - This characteristic helps differentiate it from a **cephalohematoma**, which is typically confined to one side of the head. *Crosses the suture line* - The edema of caput succedaneum is in the **soft tissues superficial to the periosteum**, allowing it to **cross the suture lines** of the skull. - This is a key differentiating feature from a **cephalohematoma**, which is a subperiosteal hemorrhage and therefore confined by suture lines. *It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp* - This statement accurately describes caput succedaneum as a **collection of serosanguineous fluid** and **edema** in the most superficial layers of the scalp. - It results from pressure on the fetal scalp during labor, leading to **venous congestion** and extravasation of fluid.
Question 12: In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?
- A. Acrodermatitis enteropathica (Correct Answer)
- B. Pellagra
- C. Riboflavin deficiency
- D. Kwashiorkor
Explanation: ***Acrodermatitis enteropathica*** - This condition is a **zinc deficiency** syndrome, which can be either inherited or acquired. - It presents with a classic triad of **diarrhoea**, **dermatitis** (often periorificial and acral with moist, crusted lesions), and **alopecia**. - The **perianal moist crust** is a characteristic finding of the periorificial dermatitis seen in this condition. *Pellagra* - Pellagra is caused by **niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency** and is characterized by the "4 D's": **dermatitis** (often sun-exposed areas), **diarrhoea**, **dementia**, and eventually death. - The dermatitis of pellagra is typically **symmetrical, hyperpigmented, and photosensitive**, not moist perianal crusts, differentiating it from the presented case. *Riboflavin deficiency* - **Riboflavin deficiency** typically manifests as **cheilosis**, angular stomatitis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis, but not specifically perianal moist crusts with diarrhoea. - While it can affect mucous membranes, the specific perianal presentation with diarrhoea points away from this diagnosis. *Kwashiorkor* - **Kwashiorkor** is a form of protein-energy malnutrition that can present with **diarrhoea** and skin changes (flaky paint dermatosis, hypopigmentation). - However, the skin changes are typically **desquamating** and affect dependent areas, not the characteristic **moist, crusted periorificial lesions** seen in zinc deficiency. - Kwashiorkor also typically presents with **edema**, which is not mentioned in this case.
Question 13: The most common cause of meningitis in children aged 5 yrs is-
- A. Staphylococcus
- B. E.coli
- C. H. influenzae
- D. S. pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***S. pneumoniae*** - **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** (Pneumococcus) is the **most common cause of bacterial meningitis** in children aged 5 years and older, as well as in adults. - Widespread vaccination has reduced its incidence but it remains a significant pathogen. *H. influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_ type b (Hib)** was a major cause of meningitis in young children, but its incidence has **drastically decreased** due to the routine **Hib vaccine**. - Without vaccination, it would still be a significant cause in this age group, but with high vaccine coverage, it is less common than _S. pneumoniae_. *Staphylococcus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** and other staphylococcal species are **less common causes of meningitis** in otherwise healthy children. - They are more typically associated with meningitis following **neurosurgery**, trauma, or in immunocompromised patients. *E.coli* - **_Escherichia coli_** is a common cause of **neonatal meningitis** (in infants less than 3 months old), often acquired during passage through the birth canal. - It is **rarely a cause of meningitis** in children aged 5 years.
Question 14: What is the APGAR score for a baby that grimaces in response to stimulation?
- A. 0
- B. 1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2
- D. 3
Explanation: ***1*** - A score of **1** is given for **grimace** in response to stimulation, indicating some reflex irritability but not a vigorous cry or sneeze. - This response shows a minimal protective reflex, suggesting the baby is not completely flaccid but also not optimally responsive. - The APGAR scoring for reflex irritability ranges from 0 to 2, with grimacing specifically scoring **1 point**. *0* - A score of **0** for reflex irritability is reserved for **no response** or **complete absence** of reflexes. - This would indicate a severely depressed neurological state, unlike the grimace observed. *2* - A score of **2** for reflex irritability is given for a **vigorous cry**, **sneeze**, **cough**, or **active withdrawal** from stimulation. - A grimace is a less robust response than these, thus not warranting a score of 2. *3* - The APGAR scoring system uses a **0-2 scale** for each of the five components (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration). - The maximum score for any single component is **2**, making 3 an invalid score. - Total APGAR scores range from 0-10, but individual components never exceed 2.
Question 15: Most common syndrome associated with A-V canal defect -
- A. Klinefelter syndrome
- B. Down syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Marfan syndrome
Explanation: ***Down syndrome*** - **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** is the most common syndrome associated with **atrioventricular (AV) canal defects** (endocardial cushion defects) - Occurs in approximately **40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome**, making it the hallmark cardiac anomaly in this condition - AV canal defects range from partial to complete defects involving atrial and ventricular septa and AV valves *Klinefelter syndrome* - **Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)** is not characteristically associated with AV canal defects - May have **mitral valve prolapse** or **aortic root dilation**, but AV canal defects are not a typical feature *Turner syndrome* - **Turner syndrome (45,X)** has distinct cardiovascular associations including **coarctation of the aorta** and **bicuspid aortic valve** - AV canal defects are **not** characteristic of Turner syndrome *Marfan syndrome* - **Marfan syndrome** is a connective tissue disorder with **aortic root dilation**, **aortic aneurysms**, and **mitral valve prolapse** - **AV canal defects are not a feature** of Marfan syndrome
Question 16: What is the most appropriate method for administering asthma treatment to an infant under one year of age?
- A. MDI with Mask (no spacer)
- B. Nebulizer therapy
- C. MDI with Spacer (no mask)
- D. MDI with Spacer and Mask (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***MDI with Spacer and Mask*** - For infants and young children, a **metered-dose inhaler (MDI)** used with a **spacer** and a **well-fitting mask** is the **most appropriate** method for delivering asthma medication. - The spacer helps to reduce the velocity of the aerosol and allows the infant to inhale the medication over several breaths, while the mask ensures the medication is delivered to the airways without significant loss. - This method is **portable**, **convenient**, and **cost-effective** for routine outpatient management. *MDI with Spacer (no mask)* - While a spacer is crucial for optimizing drug delivery from an MDI, an infant cannot effectively seal their lips around a spacer mouthpiece for proper inhalation. - This method would result in significant **medication loss** and insufficient dose delivery to the lungs. *MDI with Mask (no spacer)* - An MDI used directly with a mask without a spacer leads to inefficient drug delivery due to the **high velocity** of the aerosol spray. - The medication impinges on the back of the throat and face, reducing the amount that reaches the small airways. *Nebulizer therapy* - Nebulizers are also an **acceptable and effective option** for infants, particularly in acute settings or when families find them easier to use. - However, they are **time-consuming** (typically 10-15 minutes per treatment), require a power source or batteries, and are less portable than MDI systems. - For **routine outpatient management**, an MDI with spacer and mask is generally **preferred** due to its convenience, portability, and comparable efficacy when used correctly.
Question 17: Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for bronchiolitis?
- A. Bronchodilator
- B. Humid oxygen
- C. Macrolides (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Macrolides*** - **Macrolide antibiotics** are *not* recommended for treatment of **bronchiolitis**, as the condition is primarily caused by **viral infections** (mainly RSV), rendering antibiotics completely ineffective. - Bronchiolitis is a **viral illness**, and use of antibiotics like macrolides provides *no benefit*, increases risk of **antibiotic resistance**, and may cause unnecessary side effects. - This is the **most clearly not recommended** option among the choices. *Humid oxygen* - While **supplemental oxygen** is indicated for infants with **hypoxemia** (oxygen saturation <90%), **routine humidification** of oxygen is *not specifically recommended* by current guidelines. - Evidence does *not support* routine use of humidified oxygen therapy in bronchiolitis. - However, supplemental oxygen itself (when needed for low oxygen levels) is appropriate supportive care. *Bronchodilator* - **Bronchodilators** (like albuterol or salbutamol) are *not routinely recommended* for bronchiolitis, as most infants do not have significant **bronchospasm** and show *no sustained benefit*. - Guidelines suggest a **trial dose** may be considered, but should be *discontinued* if there is no clear clinical improvement. - The primary pathology is **bronchiolar inflammation and mucus plugging**, not reversible bronchospasm. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because the question asks for what is "*not* recommended." - **Macrolides** are the most definitively not recommended, as they are completely ineffective against viral infections. - While bronchodilators and routine humidification also lack strong evidence, **macrolides** represent inappropriate therapy with no mechanism of benefit.
Question 18: Most common age for intussusception is
- A. 0 - 6 months
- B. 6 months - 3 years (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 - 5 years
- D. > 5 years
Explanation: ***6 months - 3 years*** - Intussusception commonly occurs in infants and young children, with the peak incidence between **6 months and 3 years** of age. - This age range coincides with changes in feeding practices and increased exposure to viral infections, which can sometimes precede intussusception. - The **typical age** is 5-9 months, with most cases occurring before 2 years. *0 - 6 months* - While intussusception can occur in this age group, it is **less common** than in slightly older infants. - Intussusception in very young infants may have different underlying causes, such as a **pathologic lead point**. *3 - 5 years* - Intussusception is **less frequent** in this age group compared to infants and toddlers. - When it does occur, there is a higher likelihood of an **identifiable lead point**, such as a Meckel's diverticulum or polyp. *> 5 years* - Intussusception is **rare** in children over the age of 5 years. - In older children and adults, it is almost always associated with a **pathological lead point**, such as a tumor or postoperative adhesions.
Question 19: Among the following, which pulmonary tumor is most likely to occur in children?
- A. Carcinoid (Correct Answer)
- B. Small cell carcinoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. Adenocarcinoma
Explanation: ***Carcinoid*** - **Bronchial carcinoid tumors** are the most common primary lung tumors found in children and adolescents, accounting for a significant percentage of pediatric pulmonary neoplasms. - These tumors arise from **neuroendocrine cells** and generally have a low-grade malignant potential. *Small cell carcinoma* - **Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC)** is strongly associated with smoking and is highly aggressive, almost exclusively occurring in adults. - It is exceedingly rare in children, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this age group. *Adenocarcinoma* - **Adenocarcinoma** is the most common histological type of lung cancer in adults who do not smoke but is still extremely rare in children. - Although it can occur in non-smokers and younger adults, it is not the most likely primary pulmonary tumor in the pediatric population. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - **Squamous cell carcinoma** is primarily linked to extensive smoking history and is predominantly seen in older adult patients. - It is virtually unheard of in children, making it a highly improbable diagnosis.
Question 20: Which of the following statements about Kernicterus is TRUE?
- A. Prematurity is the primary cause of Kernicterus
- B. Kernicterus is due to Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Kernicterus is not associated with increased morbidity.
- D. Yellowish staining occurs primarily in the Cerebellum in Kernicterus
Explanation: ***Kernicterus is due to Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia*** - **Kernicterus** is a rare but severe neurological condition caused by **high levels of unconjugated bilirubin** in a newborn's blood. - **Unconjugated bilirubin** is lipophilic and can cross the **blood-brain barrier**, particularly when levels are excessively high or the barrier is compromised. *Prematurity is the primary cause of Kernicterus* - **Prematurity** is a **major risk factor** for kernicterus, as premature infants have immature livers, reduced albumin binding sites, and a less developed blood-brain barrier. - However, the primary cause is the **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** itself, which can occur in both term and preterm infants, though it is more common and severe in prematures. *Yellowish staining occurs primarily in the Cerebellum in Kernicterus* - While kernicterus does affect the **cerebellum**, the **primary and most characteristic sites** of bilirubin deposition are the **basal ganglia**, hippocampus, and brainstem nuclei. - The **basal ganglia** are the predominant target, not the cerebellum, making this statement anatomically incorrect. *Kernicterus is not associated with increased morbidity.* - Kernicterus is associated with **significant morbidity** and can lead to permanent neurological damage, including **cerebral palsy**, hearing loss, intellectual disabilities, and gaze abnormalities. - It is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent long-term neurological sequelae.